Table of Contents
Current Affairs MCQs 4 October 2026
Welcome to MCQQUESTIONS.IN! Practise 50 important current affairs MCQs with answers and explanations for 4 October 2026 to strengthen your general knowledge and improve your competitive-exam preparation.
This practice set covers national and international affairs, Indian economy and banking, science and technology, environment, sports, and important days. Each question includes four options, the correct answer, and an explanation to help you understand the topic and revise important facts.
These daily current affairs questions are designed for aspirants preparing for UPSC, SSC, Banking, Railway, State PSC, Defence and other government examinations. Attempt the questions, check your answers, and revisit the explanations to identify areas that need further revision.
Start your daily current affairs practice today and keep preparing consistently with MCQQUESTIONS.IN. Verify date-specific news and recent announcements against reliable official sources.
Section 1: National Current Affairs
1. On which date is World Animal Day observed every year?
A. 2 October B. 4 October C. 5 October D. 10 October
Correct Answer: B. 4 October
Explanation: World Animal Day is observed on 4 October to promote animal welfare and raise awareness about the protection of animals.
2. Which Indian city is the venue of the 2026 Asian Games closing ceremony?
A. Tokyo B. Osaka C. Nagoya D. Kyoto
Correct Answer: C. Nagoya
Explanation: The Aichi-Nagoya Asian Games are scheduled to conclude on 4 October 2026, with Nagoya hosting the closing ceremony.
3. Which organisation is responsible for conducting the Civil Services Examination in India?
A. SSC B. UPSC C. NTA D. IBPS
Correct Answer: B. UPSC
Explanation: The Union Public Service Commission conducts the Civil Services Examination for recruitment to services such as the IAS, IPS and Indian Foreign Service.
4. The Lok Sabha Speaker reconstitutes which parliamentary bodies to examine the work of ministries?
A. Finance Commissions B. Departmentally Related Parliamentary Standing Committees C. State Election Commissions D. Zonal Councils
Correct Answer: B. Departmentally Related Parliamentary Standing Committees
Explanation: These committees scrutinise the demands for grants, bills, and policies relating to ministries and departments. Their work supports detailed parliamentary oversight.
5. Which ministry is primarily responsible for coal-sector policy in India?
A. Ministry of Power B. Ministry of Mines C. Ministry of Coal D. Ministry of Heavy Industries
Correct Answer: C. Ministry of Coal
Explanation: The Ministry of Coal oversees coal-sector policy and related matters, including domestic coal production and dispatch.
6. Which Indian constitutional body conducts elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies?
A. Election Commission of India B. Union Public Service Commission C. Finance Commission D. NITI Aayog
Correct Answer: A. Election Commission of India
Explanation: Article 324 of the Constitution provides for the Election Commission’s superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament, state legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President.
7. The National Coastal Mission primarily focuses on which broad area?
A. Desert irrigation B. Coastal and marine environmental protection C. Mountain railway expansion D. Inland aviation
Correct Answer: B. Coastal and marine environmental protection
Explanation: Coastal management initiatives aim to strengthen the protection and sustainable management of coastal ecosystems and communities.
8. Which state is associated with the historic city of Visakhapatnam?
A. Telangana B. Andhra Pradesh C. Odisha D. Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: B. Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: Visakhapatnam is a major port and industrial city in Andhra Pradesh. It is also an important centre for maritime trade and industry.
9. What is the primary function of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?
A. Conducting elections B. Auditing government receipts and expenditure C. Setting monetary policy D. Appointing state governors
Correct Answer: B. Auditing government receipts and expenditure
Explanation: The CAG audits public finances and helps ensure legislative accountability for the use of public money.
10. Which institution is India’s principal policy think tank?
A. NITI Aayog B. SEBI C. NABARD D. FCI
Correct Answer: A. NITI Aayog
Explanation: NITI Aayog supports cooperative federalism and provides policy research, strategic advice and development-related recommendations to the government.
Section 2: Economy and Banking
11. Which institution is India’s central bank?
A. State Bank of India B. Reserve Bank of India C. NABARD D. SEBI
Correct Answer: B. Reserve Bank of India
Explanation: The RBI is India’s central bank. It conducts monetary policy, regulates important parts of the financial system and manages currency issuance.
12. How many members are there in India’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?
A. Four B. Five C. Six D. Eight
Correct Answer: C. Six
Explanation: The MPC has six members: three from the RBI and three appointed by the Central Government. It determines the policy interest rate framework for achieving the inflation target.
13. Which organisation operates India’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI)?
A. NPCI B. SEBI C. IRDAI D. SIDBI
Correct Answer: A. NPCI
Explanation: The National Payments Corporation of India operates UPI, an instant payment system that enables interoperable bank-to-bank digital transactions.
14. What does GDP stand for?
A. General Development Programme B. Gross Domestic Product C. Government Debt Policy D. Gross Distribution Price
Correct Answer: B. Gross Domestic Product
Explanation: GDP measures the value of final goods and services produced within a country’s domestic territory during a specified period.
15. Which organisation regulates the securities market in India?
A. RBI B. SEBI C. NABARD D. TRAI
Correct Answer: B. SEBI
Explanation: The Securities and Exchange Board of India regulates the securities market and works to protect investors and promote market development.
16. The government’s announcement that small-savings interest rates remain unchanged for October–December 2026 relates to which financial period?
A. Q1 FY2026–27 B. Q2 FY2026–27 C. Q3 FY2026–27 D. Q4 FY2026–27
Correct Answer: C. Q3 FY2026–27
Explanation: India’s financial year runs from 1 April to 31 March. The October–December quarter is the third quarter of FY2026–27.
17. Which of the following is a direct tax in India?
A. Goods and Services Tax B. Customs duty C. Personal income tax D. Excise duty on specified goods
Correct Answer: C. Personal income tax
Explanation: Income tax is imposed directly on the income of individuals and other taxable entities. GST and customs duties are examples of indirect taxes.
18. What is the principal purpose of monetary policy?
A. To conduct school examinations B. To manage monetary conditions and support price stability C. To construct national highways directly D. To determine parliamentary constituencies
Correct Answer: B. To manage monetary conditions and support price stability
Explanation: Monetary policy influences interest rates and financial conditions. In India, the RBI’s monetary policy framework focuses on maintaining price stability while keeping growth in mind.
19. Which institution primarily supports agricultural and rural development finance in India?
A. NABARD B. SEBI C. EXIM Bank D. PFRDA
Correct Answer: A. NABARD
Explanation: The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development supports agricultural credit, rural development and the institutions that finance these activities.
20. What is inflation?
A. A sustained rise in the general price level B. A fall in the population C. An increase in exports alone D. A reduction in all wages
Correct Answer: A. A sustained rise in the general price level
Explanation: Inflation reduces the purchasing power of money when prices rise generally. It is commonly measured using consumer or wholesale price indices.
Section 3: International Affairs
21. Which international organisation publishes the World Economic Outlook?
A. World Bank B. International Monetary Fund C. World Health Organization D. UNESCO
Correct Answer: B. International Monetary Fund
Explanation: The IMF publishes the World Economic Outlook, which examines global economic growth, inflation, risks and economic policy developments.
22. World Space Week is observed annually during which dates?
A. 1–7 October B. 4–10 October C. 10–16 October D. 15–21 October
Correct Answer: B. 4–10 October
Explanation: The United Nations recognises World Space Week from 4 to 10 October. The dates commemorate important milestones in space exploration.
23. What is the official theme reported for World Space Week 2026?
A. Space for Peace B. Rocket Revolution C. Satellites for Agriculture D. Exploring Mars Together
Correct Answer: B. Rocket Revolution
Explanation: The 2026 theme is “Rocket Revolution,” highlighting developments in rocket technology and the changing landscape of space launch services.
24. Which satellite was launched by the Soviet Union in 1957 and marked the beginning of the Space Age?
A. Sputnik 1 B. Voyager 1 C. Apollo 11 D. Luna 2
Correct Answer: A. Sputnik 1
Explanation: Sputnik 1 became the first artificial Earth satellite when it was launched on 4 October 1957.
25. Where is the headquarters of the United Nations located?
A. Geneva, Switzerland B. Paris, France C. New York City, USA D. Vienna, Austria
Correct Answer: C. New York City, USA
Explanation: The UN’s principal headquarters is in New York City. The organisation also maintains major offices in Geneva, Vienna and Nairobi.
26. Which organisation is responsible for international public-health coordination within the UN system?
A. WTO B. WHO C. ILO D. IMF
Correct Answer: B. WHO
Explanation: The World Health Organization coordinates international public-health work, develops technical guidance and supports countries in addressing health emergencies.
27. Which organisation administers the Nobel Peace Prize?
A. Norwegian Nobel Committee B. Swedish Parliament C. European Commission D. International Court of Justice
Correct Answer: A. Norwegian Nobel Committee
Explanation: The Norwegian Nobel Committee awards the Nobel Peace Prize. The other Nobel Prizes are awarded by Swedish institutions, with the economics prize administered through the Swedish Academy of Sciences.
28. What is the principal role of the International Court of Justice (ICJ)?
A. To prosecute individuals for every international crime B. To settle legal disputes between states and provide advisory opinions C. To regulate international stock exchanges D. To conduct UN peacekeeping operations
Correct Answer: B. To settle legal disputes between states and provide advisory opinions
Explanation: The ICJ is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations. Its contentious cases involve states, unlike the International Criminal Court, which prosecutes individuals for specified crimes.
29. Which agreement is the principal international treaty addressing climate change?
A. Paris Agreement B. Treaty of Versailles C. Geneva Convention alone D. Antarctic Treaty
Correct Answer: A. Paris Agreement
Explanation: Adopted in 2015, the Paris Agreement aims to strengthen the global response to climate change, including efforts to limit the rise in global average temperature.
30. Which UN body has primary responsibility for maintaining international peace and security?
A. UNESCO B. UN Security Council C. UNDP D. UNICEF
Correct Answer: B. UN Security Council
Explanation: The Security Council has primary responsibility for international peace and security under the UN Charter. Its decisions and actions depend on the applicable Charter provisions.
Section 4: Science, Technology and Environment
31. Which Indian organisation is responsible for the country’s civilian space programme?
A. DRDO B. ISRO C. BARC D. CSIR
Correct Answer: B. ISRO
Explanation: The Indian Space Research Organisation develops and operates space systems for communications, Earth observation, navigation, scientific research and other applications.
32. What does AI stand for?
A. Automated Internet B. Artificial Intelligence C. Advanced Integration D. Applied Information
Correct Answer: B. Artificial Intelligence
Explanation: Artificial intelligence refers to computer systems designed to perform tasks that typically require human-like capabilities, such as language processing, pattern recognition and decision support.
33. What is the main purpose of India’s Green Energy Corridor initiative?
A. To expand coal imports B. To improve transmission infrastructure for renewable energy C. To increase private car ownership D. To replace all railway lines
Correct Answer: B. To improve transmission infrastructure for renewable energy
Explanation: Green Energy Corridors support the integration and transmission of renewable electricity, helping connect renewable-energy generation sites with the wider power grid.
34. Which gas is the largest contributor to human-caused global warming among the following options?
A. Oxygen B. Carbon dioxide C. Helium D. Neon
Correct Answer: B. Carbon dioxide
Explanation: Carbon dioxide is a major long-lived greenhouse gas emitted through fossil-fuel combustion, cement production and land-use changes.
35. Which of the following is a renewable energy source?
A. Coal B. Petroleum C. Solar energy D. Natural gas
Correct Answer: C. Solar energy
Explanation: Solar energy comes from sunlight and is naturally replenished. Coal, petroleum and natural gas are fossil fuels.
36. The Great Indian Bustard is classified as which type of animal?
A. Common domestic bird B. Critically endangered bird C. Marine mammal D. Invasive reptile
Correct Answer: B. Critically endangered bird
Explanation: The Great Indian Bustard is a highly threatened grassland bird native to the Indian subcontinent. Habitat loss, collisions with power infrastructure and other pressures threaten its survival.
37. The Great Indian Bustard conservation-breeding programme is associated with which Indian landscape?
A. Desert National Park region of Rajasthan B. Sundarbans mangroves C. Western Himalayan glaciers D. Chilika Lake alone
Correct Answer: A. Desert National Park region of Rajasthan
Explanation: The Desert National Park landscape in Rajasthan is a key stronghold for the species. Conservation breeding is intended to support the survival of this critically endangered bird.
38. What is the primary objective of biodiversity conservation?
A. To eliminate all wild species B. To protect the variety of life and ecosystems C. To convert all forests into farmland D. To prevent all natural ecological changes
Correct Answer: B. To protect the variety of life and ecosystems
Explanation: Biodiversity conservation protects genetic diversity, species and ecosystems while supporting ecological balance and long-term human well-being.
39. Which of the following is an example of an electric vehicle (EV)?
A. A conventional petrol-only car B. A battery-powered car C. A coal-powered locomotive D. A conventional diesel generator
Correct Answer: B. A battery-powered car
Explanation: A battery-electric vehicle uses electricity stored in batteries to power an electric motor rather than relying on an internal-combustion engine for propulsion.
40. What is the main purpose of cybersecurity?
A. To increase screen brightness B. To protect systems, networks and data from digital threats C. To improve road construction D. To increase agricultural rainfall
Correct Answer: B. To protect systems, networks and data from digital threats
Explanation: Cybersecurity uses technical and organisational measures to protect the confidentiality, integrity and availability of digital information and systems.
Section 5: Sports and Important Days
41. Which country hosted the 2026 Asian Games in the Aichi-Nagoya region?
A. China B. Japan C. South Korea D. Thailand
Correct Answer: B. Japan
Explanation: The 2026 Asian Games are being held in Japan, with Aichi Prefecture and Nagoya serving as the principal host region.
42. In which sport did India’s Aman Sehrawat win a men’s freestyle gold medal at the 2026 Asian Games, according to reports dated 4 October?
A. Boxing B. Wrestling C. Weightlifting D. Judo
Correct Answer: B. Wrestling
Explanation: Reports published around 4 October 2026 identify Aman Sehrawat as the men’s freestyle 57 kg gold medallist. This is a useful sports-current-affairs fact for examination revision.
43. Which Indian archer was reported to have won the women’s individual recurve gold at the 2026 Asian Games?
A. Deepika Kumari B. Kumkum Anil Mohod C. Bombayla Devi D. Ankita Bhakat
Correct Answer: B. Kumkum Anil Mohod
Explanation: Reports around 4 October identify Kumkum Anil Mohod as the women’s individual recurve gold medallist at the Aichi-Nagoya Asian Games.
44. Which Indian women’s team won the Asian Games gold medal in hockey in October 2026, according to reports?
A. Men’s hockey team B. Women’s hockey team C. Women’s football team D. Men’s volleyball team
Correct Answer: B. Women’s hockey team
Explanation: Reports published before 4 October stated that India defeated China 1–0 in the women’s hockey final, ending a 44-year wait for the Asian Games title.
45. World Teachers’ Day is observed internationally on which date?
A. 2 October B. 5 October C. 10 October D. 24 October
Correct Answer: B. 5 October
Explanation: World Teachers’ Day recognises the contribution of teachers and highlights issues affecting the teaching profession.
46. United Nations Day is observed on which date?
A. 10 October B. 16 October C. 24 October D. 31 October
Correct Answer: C. 24 October
Explanation: United Nations Day commemorates the entry into force of the UN Charter on 24 October 1945.
47. World Food Day is observed every year on which date?
A. 7 October B. 12 October C. 16 October D. 28 October
Correct Answer: C. 16 October
Explanation: World Food Day raises awareness about hunger, food security, nutrition and sustainable food systems. It marks the founding of the Food and Agriculture Organization in 1945.
48. Which country won the FIFA Men’s World Cup held in 2026?
A. Argentina B. Spain C. France D. Brazil
Correct Answer: B. Spain
Explanation: Spain won the 2026 FIFA Men’s World Cup. For sports examinations, remember to distinguish the tournament winner from the host countries and individual award winners.
49. Which sport uses the terms “birdie,” “eagle” and “par”?
A. Golf B. Tennis C. Cricket D. Badminton
Correct Answer: A. Golf
Explanation: These terms describe a golfer’s score on a hole relative to its designated par. A birdie is one stroke under par, while an eagle is two strokes under par.
50. Which organisation awards the Ballon d’Or, one of football’s best-known individual honours?
A. FIFA alone B. France Football C. UEFA alone D. International Olympic Committee
Correct Answer: B. France Football
Explanation: The Ballon d’Or is an individual football award organised by France Football. It recognises outstanding performance by footballers over the relevant award period.
Fact-check:
Useful sources for your final fact-check include the Press Information Bureau, Reserve Bank of India, ISRO, and United Nations.
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