700 MCQs on current affairs for the month of September 2026. Prepare for competitive examinations with comprehensive current affairs for September 2026, covering important national and international events, economy, banking, defense, science and technology, environment, sports, awards, appointments, and government initiatives.
- National & Government Affairs: 40 MCQs
- Economy & Banking: 136 MCQs
- International Affairs: 105 MCQs
- Defence & Security: 85 MCQs
- Science & Technology: 77 MCQs
- Environment & Agriculture: 67 MCQs
- Sports: 96 MCQs
- Awards & Important Days: 27 MCQs
- Mixed / General Awareness: 67 MCQs
Table of Contents
National & Government Affairs
Total Questions: 40
Q. 1. Which scheme completed seven years of implementation in September 2026?
A. PM-KISAN
B. PM-KMY
C. PMFBY
D. PMAY
Answer: B. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana
Explanation: PM-KMY completed seven years in September 2026. It provides an old-age pension framework for eligible small and marginal farmers.
Q. 2. PM-KMY primarily provides what type of benefit?
A. Crop insurance
B. Old-age pension
C. Free irrigation
D. Fertilizer subsidy
Answer: B. Old-age pension
Explanation: PM-KMY is a voluntary contributory pension scheme designed to provide social-security support to eligible small and marginal farmers.
Q. 3. Which organisation implements PM-Kisan Maandhan Yojana in collaboration with the Ministry of Agriculture?
A. LIC
B. SBI
C. NABARD
D. SIDBI
Answer: A. LIC
Explanation: PM-KMY was launched by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare and is implemented in collaboration with the Life Insurance Corporation of India.
Q. 4. What is the eligible landholding limit for small and marginal farmers under PM-KMY?
A. 1 hectare
B. 2 hectares
C. 5 hectares
D. 10 hectares
Answer: B. 2 hectares
Explanation: Eligible small and marginal farmers must have cultivable landholding of up to 2 hectares, subject to the scheme’s other conditions.
Q. 5. At what age does the assured monthly pension under PM-KMY begin?
A. 50 years
B. 55 years
C. 60 years
D. 65 years
Answer: C. 60 years
Explanation: PM-KMY provides an assured monthly pension beginning at the age of 60 to eligible subscribers.
Q. 6. Which village was declared Ladakh’s first designated Heritage Village in September 2026?
A. Kumik
B. Leh
C. Nubra
D. Hanle
Answer: A. Kumik
Explanation: Kumik village in Zanskar was declared Ladakh’s first designated Heritage Village on 15 September 2026.
Q. 7. Kumik village is located in which region?
A. Zanskar
B. Kashmir Valley
C. Ladakh Plateau
D. Spiti
Answer: A. Zanskar
Explanation: Kumik is a village in the Zanskar region of Ladakh.
Q. 8. What does EMRS stand for?
A. Eklavya Model Residential Schools
B. Educational Model Rural Schools
C. Elite Modern Residential Schools
D. E-Governance Model Rural Schools
Answer: A. Eklavya Model Residential Schools
Explanation: EMRS are residential schools intended to provide quality education to Scheduled Tribe students.
Q. 9. Approximately how many additional employees are expected to benefit from the revised EPFO coverage?
A) 25 lakh
B) 35 lakh
C) 51 lakh
D) 75 lakh
Answer: C) 51 lakh
Explanation: The government estimates that around 51 lakh additional employees will come within mandatory EPFO coverage. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 10. India’s 20th Rozgar Mela on September 19, 2026 is scheduled to provide more than how many appointment letters?
A) 25,000
B) 40,000
C) 51,000
D) 1 lakh
Answer: C) 51,000
Explanation: The 20th Rozgar Mela is scheduled to distribute more than 51,000 appointment letters to newly recruited youth in government organisations across 45 locations. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 11. The 20th Rozgar Mela is being conducted across how many locations?
A) 25
B) 35
C) 45
D) 50
Answer: C) 45
Explanation: According to the PIB announcement, the 20th Rozgar Mela is being held across 45 locations in the country. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 12. The 20th National Rozgar Mela was held on which date?
A) 15 September 2026
B) 17 September 2026
C) 19 September 2026
D) 20 September 2026
Answer: C) 19 September 2026
Explanation: The 20th National Rozgar Mela was held on 19 September 2026, with appointment letters distributed to newly recruited government employees. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 13. More than how many appointment letters were distributed during the 20th Rozgar Mela?
A) 25,000
B) 40,000
C) 51,000
D) 75,000
Answer: C) 51,000
Explanation: More than 51,000 appointment letters were distributed to newly appointed youth across government organisations. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 14. The 20th Rozgar Mela was organised at how many locations?
A) 25
B) 35
C) 45
D) 55
Answer: C) 45
Explanation: The Rozgar Mela was conducted across 45 centres nationwide. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 15. Approximately how many youths have received appointment letters through Rozgar Melas since October 2022?
A) 5.75 lakh
B) 8.50 lakh
C) 12.75 lakh
D) 15.25 lakh
Answer: C) 12.75 lakh
Explanation: Government figures state that more than 12.75 lakh youths have been appointed through Rozgar Melas since October 2022. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 16. The 20th Rozgar Mela primarily focuses on which area?
A) Agricultural exports
B) Government employment
C) Tourism promotion
D) Sports development
Answer: B) Government employment
Explanation: Rozgar Melas are organised to accelerate recruitment into various departments and organisations of the Government of India. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 17. Which phrase was highlighted as an administrative philosophy during the 20th Rozgar Mela?
A) Sabka Saath
B) Nagrik Devo Bhava
C) Jan Dhan Jan Suraksha
D) Digital First
Answer: B) Nagrik Devo Bhava
Explanation: The phrase “Nagrik Devo Bhava”, meaning the citizen is divine, was highlighted in the address to new government recruits. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 18. From which date will Biometric Aadhaar Authentication become mandatory for subsidised domestic LPG refills?
A) September 21, 2026
B) October 1, 2026
C) November 1, 2026
D) January 1, 2027
Answer: B) October 1, 2026
Explanation: The Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas announced mandatory Biometric Aadhaar Authentication for subsidised domestic LPG refills from October 1, 2026.
Q. 19. How many appointment letters were distributed nationwide during the 20th Rozgar Mela?
A) More than 21,000
B) More than 31,000
C) More than 51,000
D) More than 1 lakh
Answer: C) More than 51,000
Explanation: More than 51,000 appointment letters were distributed at 45 locations during the 20th Rozgar Mela.
Q. 20. The 20th Rozgar Mela took the cumulative number of appointment letters issued through Rozgar Melas to approximately:
A) 5.75 lakh
B) 8.25 lakh
C) 10.50 lakh
D) 12.75 lakh
Answer: D) 12.75 lakh
Explanation: According to PIB, the cumulative number reached approximately 12.75 lakh appointment letters.
Q. 21. The 20th Rozgar Mela was organised at how many locations nationwide?
A) 25
B) 35
C) 45
D) 55
Answer: C) 45
Explanation: The 20th Rozgar Mela distributed appointment letters across 45 locations.
Q. 22. The MEA internship programme mentioned in recent current affairs is scheduled for which period?
A) April–September 2026
B) June–December 2026
C) October 2026–March 2027
D) January–June 2027
Answer: C) October 2026–March 2027
Explanation: The Ministry of External Affairs opened applications for an internship programme scheduled from October 2026 to March 2027.
Q. 23. Which government movement was associated with the ‘Sundays on Cycle’ initiative?
A) Fit India Movement
B) Skill India Mission
C) Digital India
D) Make in India
Answer: A) Fit India Movement
Explanation: The initiative reinforces the message of fitness and healthy living under the Fit India Movement.
Q. 24. What does DDU-GKY stand for?
A) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
B) Digital Development and Urban Growth Yojana
C) Deen Dayal Gram Kisan Yojana
D) District Development Gramin Kaushal Yojana
Answer: A) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
Explanation: DDU-GKY is a rural skilling and placement-oriented programme named after Deen Dayal Upadhyaya.
Q. 25. DDU-GKY 2.0 training batches are scheduled to commence across most States/UTs from:
A) September 2026
B) October 2026
C) December 2026
D) January 2027
Answer: B) October 2026
Explanation: The Ministry of Rural Development announced that DDU-GKY 2.0 training batches will commence across most States and Union Territories from October 2026.
Q. 26. Which programme focuses on providing potable tap water to rural households?
A) PM-KISAN
B) Jal Jeevan Mission
C) PMAY
D) PM Fasal Bima Yojana
Answer: B) Jal Jeevan Mission
Explanation: Jal Jeevan Mission is focused on expanding access to potable drinking water through household tap connections in rural India. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 27. Which ministry is associated with the National Electricity Policy 2026 currently being processed?
A) Ministry of Coal
B) Ministry of Power
C) Ministry of Finance
D) Ministry of Heavy Industries
Answer: B) Ministry of Power
Analytical Explanation: The National Electricity Policy provides a broad policy framework for India’s electricity sector, including generation, transmission and distribution.
Q. 28. Which state launched Mukhyamantri Krishak Samriddhi Yojana along with the Urvarak Setu Mobile App?
A) Bihar
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Rajasthan
D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: B) Uttar Pradesh
Analytical Explanation: The initiatives are intended to strengthen agricultural credit and digital access to agricultural inputs and cooperative services. (GKToday)
Q. 29. Under Mukhyamantri Krishak Samriddhi Yojana, the effective interest rate for eligible small and marginal farmers is targeted at:
A) 4%
B) 5%
C) 6%
D) 8%
Answer: C) 6%
Analytical Explanation: The scheme aims to provide longer-term agricultural credit to small and marginal farmers at a reduced effective interest rate of 6%. (GKToday)
Q. 30. India’s government was expected to discuss the second-half borrowing calendar for which period?
A) April–September 2026
B) October 2026–March 2027
C) January–June 2027
D) July–December 2027
Answer: B) October 2026–March 2027
Analytical Explanation: The borrowing calendar determines the government’s planned bond issuance during the second half of the fiscal year. (Reuters)
Q. 31. Denmark’s new work-permit route for Indians is called:
A) Nordic Talent Route
B) Collective Agreement-Based Business Scheme
C) India-Denmark Skilled Visa
D) Nordic Employment Permit
Answer: B) Collective Agreement-Based Business Scheme
Analytical Explanation: Denmark’s Parliament passed legislation creating this route, scheduled to begin later in 2026. (GKToday)
Q. 32. On which date did the ‘Make in India’ initiative complete 12 years?
A) 15 August 2026
B) 25 September 2026
C) 2 October 2026
D) 26 September 2026
Answer: B) 25 September 2026
Analytical Explanation: Make in India was launched on 25 September 2014. The 12-year milestone was marked on 25 September 2026, with the government highlighting manufacturing, investment and exports. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 33. The ‘Make in India’ initiative was launched in which year?
A) 2012
B) 2013
C) 2014
D) 2015
Answer: C) 2014
Analytical Explanation: Make in India was launched in 2014 to encourage manufacturing, investment and industrial development in India. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 34. Which department is the nodal department for Special Campaign 6?
A) Department of Economic Affairs
B) Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances
C) Department of Revenue
D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer: B) Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances
Analytical Explanation: DARPG is coordinating Special Campaign 6, which focuses on areas such as cleanliness, efficiency and reducing pendency in government offices. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 35. Which initiative completed 12 years on 25 September 2026?
A) Digital India
B) Make in India
C) Skill India
D) Startup India
Answer: B) Make in India
Analytical Explanation: Make in India was launched on 25 September 2014 and completed 12 years in 2026. (MCQ Orbit)
Q. 36. Make in India was launched in which year?
A) 2012
B) 2013
C) 2014
D) 2015
Answer: C) 2014
Analytical Explanation: The initiative was launched on 25 September 2014 to encourage manufacturing, investment and innovation in India. (MCQ Orbit)
Q. 37. OneTag was developed by which organisation?
A) RBI
B) NHAI
C) NPCI
D) UIDAI
Answer: B) NHAI
Analytical Explanation: The National Highways Authority of India made OneTag operational on the Rajmargyatra app, making FASTag issuer switching more convenient. (The Indian Express)
Q. 38. INS Nipun belongs to which class of vessels?
A. Shivalik class
B. Nistar class
C. Kamorta class
D. Sandhayak class
Answer: B. Nistar class
Analytical Explanation: INS Nipun is the second indigenous Nistar-class Diving Support Vessel. Its commissioning strengthens India’s specialized underwater support infrastructure.
Q. 39. Which authority made AI-based Monitoring and Control mandatory for certain large national highway projects?
A. NITI Aayog
B. NHAI
C. Ministry of Electronics and IT
D. BIS
Answer: B. NHAI
Analytical Explanation: The National Highways Authority of India introduced the requirement for AI-based monitoring for qualifying large highway construction and expansion projects.
Q. 40. Under the revised Delhi Solar Policy, free rooftop solar installations of up to what capacity are proposed for eligible domestic households?
A. 1 kW
B. 2 kW
C. 3 kW
D. 5 kW
Answer: C. 3 kW
Analytical Explanation: Delhi’s revised solar policy provides for free 3-kW rooftop solar systems for eligible households consuming up to 400 units per month, with a stated target of expanding rooftop solar capacity.
Economy & Banking
Total Questions: 136
Q. 41. What is the maximum UPI transaction amount mentioned in the recent notification for which no direct or indirect charges can be imposed?
A. ₹1,000
B. ₹2,000
C. ₹5,000
D. ₹10,000
Answer: B. ₹2,000
Explanation: The Ministry of Finance notified that banks and payment-system providers cannot impose direct or indirect MDR charges on UPI transactions up to ₹2,000.
Q. 42. Which organisation operates the Unified Payments Interface (UPI)?
A. SEBI
B. NPCI
C. IRDAI
D. NABARD
Answer: B. NPCI
Explanation: UPI is operated by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), the organisation responsible for India’s retail digital-payment infrastructure.
Q. 43. Under which Act was the recent notification concerning charges on UPI transactions issued?
A. RBI Act, 1934
B. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
C. Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007
D. Companies Act, 2013
Answer: C. Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007
Explanation: The notification was issued using powers under Section 10A of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
Q. 44. Which debit-card network is specifically covered by the no-charge notification?
A. Visa
B. Mastercard
C. RuPay
D. American Express
Answer: C. RuPay
Explanation: The notification covers debit cards powered by RuPay and UPI transactions up to ₹2,000.
Q. 45. What does MDR stand for in digital payments?
A. Market Digital Rate
B. Merchant Discount Rate
C. Monthly Deposit Rate
D. Merchant Deposit Reserve
Answer: B. Merchant Discount Rate
Explanation: MDR is the fee associated with processing a digital payment received by a merchant. It is generally borne by the merchant rather than being a direct customer charge.
Q. 46. Which organisation signed an MoU with HPCL for smart classrooms in Eklavya Model Residential Schools?
A. NSTFDC
B. UGC
C. AICTE
D. NCERT
Answer: A. NSTFDC
Explanation: The National Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation (NSTFDC) and Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited signed an MoU for integrated computer labs-cum-smart classrooms in EMRS.
Q. 47. What is the reported annual retail inflation rate in India for August 2026?
A) 3.82%
B) 4.25%
C) 4.82%
D) 5.42%
Answer: C) 4.82%
Explanation: India’s annual retail inflation rose to 4.82% in August 2026, according to data reported on September 14. (reuters.com)
Q. 48. India’s August 2026 retail inflation was higher than which July figure?
A) 3.25%
B) 4.45%
C) 5.15%
D) 5.45%
Answer: B) 4.45%
Explanation: August retail inflation was reported at 4.82%, compared with 4.45% in July. (reuters.com)
Q. 49. Which institution was reported to have intervened in the foreign-exchange market to support the Indian rupee?
A) SEBI
B) SBI
C) RBI
D) NABARD
Answer: C) RBI
Explanation: Reuters reported that the Reserve Bank of India likely intervened in the foreign-exchange market amid pressure on the rupee. (reuters.com)
Q. 50. Around what level did the Indian rupee close against the US dollar on September 16, 2026?
A) ₹85.95
B) ₹90.95
C) ₹95.96
D) ₹101.96
Answer: C) ₹95.96
Explanation: The rupee closed around ₹95.9550 per US dollar on September 16. (reuters.com)
Q. 51. What was the Nifty 50’s reported gain on September 16, 2026?
A) 0.13%
B) 0.43%
C) 0.83%
D) 1.43%
Answer: B) 0.43%
Explanation: The Nifty 50 rose approximately 0.43% to 23,217.6 on September 16. (reuters.com)
Q. 52. What was the reported closing level of the BSE Sensex on September 16, 2026?
A) 64,336.45
B) 69,336.45
C) 74,336.45
D) 79,336.45
Answer: C) 74,336.45
Explanation: The Sensex gained about 0.45% and closed at approximately 74,336.45. (reuters.com)
Q. 53. Which digital payment system was at the centre of a fee-related debate in September 2026?
A) NEFT
B) RTGS
C) UPI
D) IMPS
Answer: C) UPI
Explanation: Recent discussions concerned fees for certain UPI transactions. The Finance Ministry also clarified that UPI remains free for consumers. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 54. What does UPI stand for?
A) Unified Payment India
B) Universal Payments Interface
C) Unified Payments Interface
D) United Payment Infrastructure
Answer: C) Unified Payments Interface
Explanation: UPI is India’s real-time digital payments system that enables bank-account-based electronic transactions.
Q. 55. Which organisation operates the UPI infrastructure?
A) RBI alone
B) NPCI
C) SEBI
D) IRDAI
Answer: B) NPCI
Explanation: The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) operates the UPI payment infrastructure.
Q. 56. What did the Union Cabinet approve regarding the EPFO wage ceiling on September 16, 2026?
A) Reduction from ₹15,000 to ₹10,000
B) Increase from ₹15,000 to ₹20,000
C) Increase from ₹15,000 to ₹25,000
D) Increase from ₹20,000 to ₹30,000
Answer: C) Increase from ₹15,000 to ₹25,000
Explanation: The Cabinet approved an enhancement of the EPFO wage ceiling from ₹15,000 to ₹25,000 per month. (pib.gov.in)
Q. 57. Which ministry is associated with the EPFO?
A) Ministry of Finance
B) Ministry of Labour and Employment
C) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer: B) Ministry of Labour and Employment
Explanation: EPFO functions under the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
Q. 58. Which international organisation warned that trade fragmentation could severely affect poorer economies?
A) IMF
B) WTO
C) World Bank
D) OECD
Answer: B) WTO
Explanation: The World Trade Organization (WTO) warned about the consequences of increasing fragmentation of global trade. (m.economictimes.com)
Q. 59. Who was appointed as the next Chief Economist of the World Bank?
A) Abhijit Banerjee
B) Michael Kremer
C) Joseph Stiglitz
D) Esther Duflo
Answer: B) Michael Kremer
Explanation: The World Bank named Nobel laureate Michael Kremer as its next chief economist, succeeding Indermit Gill. (reuters.com)
Q. 60. What was the approximate price of Brent crude reported around September 16, 2026?
A) $68 per barrel
B) $78 per barrel
C) $88 per barrel
D) $108 per barrel
Answer: D) $108 per barrel
Explanation: Brent crude was reported at approximately $108 per barrel, reflecting heightened supply concerns. (reuters.com)
Q. 61. Which sector saw particular attention from investors following changes concerning certain UPI transactions?
A) Payment and financial services
B) Cement
C) Pharmaceuticals
D) Tourism
Answer: A) Payment and financial services
Explanation: Banking, financial and payment-related stocks were among the sectors that gained on September 16 amid discussion of monetisation of certain UPI transactions. (reuters.com)
Q. 62. According to the PIB, what is India’s FRP for sugarcane for the 2026–27 sugar season?
A) ₹300/quintal
B) ₹325/quintal
C) ₹365/quintal
D) ₹400/quintal
Answer: C) ₹365/quintal
Explanation: The government set the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) at ₹365 per quintal for the 2026–27 sugar season. (pib.gov.in)
Q. 63. What does RCMC stand for in India’s export framework?
A) Registered Customs Management Certificate
B) Registration-cum-Membership Certificate
C) Regional Commerce Membership Code
D) Registered Cargo Movement Certificate
Answer: B) Registration-cum-Membership Certificate
Explanation: RCMC stands for Registration-cum-Membership Certificate, generally issued by relevant Export Promotion Councils or commodity boards to exporters.
Q. 64. What is the reported annual retail inflation rate in India for August 2026?
A) 3.82%
B) 4.25%
C) 4.82%
D) 5.42%
Answer: C) 4.82%
Explanation: India’s annual retail inflation rose to 4.82% in August 2026, according to data reported on September 14. (reuters.com)
Q. 65. India’s August 2026 retail inflation was higher than which July figure?
A) 3.25%
B) 4.45%
C) 5.15%
D) 5.45%
Answer: B) 4.45%
Explanation: August retail inflation was reported at 4.82%, compared with 4.45% in July. (reuters.com)
Q. 66. Which institution was reported to have intervened in the foreign-exchange market to support the Indian rupee?
A) SEBI
B) SBI
C) RBI
D) NABARD
Answer: C) RBI
Explanation: Reuters reported that the Reserve Bank of India likely intervened in the foreign-exchange market amid pressure on the rupee. (reuters.com)
Q. 67. Around what level did the Indian rupee close against the US dollar on September 16, 2026?
A) ₹85.95
B) ₹90.95
C) ₹95.96
D) ₹101.96
Answer: C) ₹95.96
Explanation: The rupee closed around ₹95.9550 per US dollar on September 16. (reuters.com)
Q. 68. What was the Nifty 50’s reported gain on September 16, 2026?
A) 0.13%
B) 0.43%
C) 0.83%
D) 1.43%
Answer: B) 0.43%
Explanation: The Nifty 50 rose approximately 0.43% to 23,217.6 on September 16. (reuters.com)
Q. 69. What was the reported closing level of the BSE Sensex on September 16, 2026?
A) 64,336.45
B) 69,336.45
C) 74,336.45
D) 79,336.45
Answer: C) 74,336.45
Explanation: The Sensex gained about 0.45% and closed at approximately 74,336.45. (reuters.com)
Q. 70. Which digital payment system was at the centre of a fee-related debate in September 2026?
A) NEFT
B) RTGS
C) UPI
D) IMPS
Answer: C) UPI
Explanation: Recent discussions concerned fees for certain UPI transactions. The Finance Ministry also clarified that UPI remains free for consumers. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 71. What does UPI stand for?
A) Unified Payment India
B) Universal Payments Interface
C) Unified Payments Interface
D) United Payment Infrastructure
Answer: C) Unified Payments Interface
Explanation: UPI is India’s real-time digital payments system that enables bank-account-based electronic transactions.
Q. 72. Which organisation operates the UPI infrastructure?
A) RBI alone
B) NPCI
C) SEBI
D) IRDAI
Answer: B) NPCI
Explanation: The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) operates the UPI payment infrastructure.
Q. 73. What did the Union Cabinet approve regarding the EPFO wage ceiling on September 16, 2026?
A) Reduction from ₹15,000 to ₹10,000
B) Increase from ₹15,000 to ₹20,000
C) Increase from ₹15,000 to ₹25,000
D) Increase from ₹20,000 to ₹30,000
Answer: C) Increase from ₹15,000 to ₹25,000
Explanation: The Cabinet approved an enhancement of the EPFO wage ceiling from ₹15,000 to ₹25,000 per month. (pib.gov.in)
Q. 74. Which ministry is associated with the EPFO?
A) Ministry of Finance
B) Ministry of Labour and Employment
C) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer: B) Ministry of Labour and Employment
Explanation: EPFO functions under the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
Q. 75. Which international organisation warned that trade fragmentation could severely affect poorer economies?
A) IMF
B) WTO
C) World Bank
D) OECD
Answer: B) WTO
Explanation: The World Trade Organization (WTO) warned about the consequences of increasing fragmentation of global trade. (m.economictimes.com)
Q. 76. Who was appointed as the next Chief Economist of the World Bank?
A) Abhijit Banerjee
B) Michael Kremer
C) Joseph Stiglitz
D) Esther Duflo
Answer: B) Michael Kremer
Explanation: The World Bank named Nobel laureate Michael Kremer as its next chief economist, succeeding Indermit Gill. (reuters.com)
Q. 77. What was the approximate price of Brent crude reported around September 16, 2026?
A) $68 per barrel
B) $78 per barrel
C) $88 per barrel
D) $108 per barrel
Answer: D) $108 per barrel
Explanation: Brent crude was reported at approximately $108 per barrel, reflecting heightened supply concerns. (reuters.com)
Q. 78. Which sector saw particular attention from investors following changes concerning certain UPI transactions?
A) Payment and financial services
B) Cement
C) Pharmaceuticals
D) Tourism
Answer: A) Payment and financial services
Explanation: Banking, financial and payment-related stocks were among the sectors that gained on September 16 amid discussion of monetisation of certain UPI transactions. (reuters.com)
Q. 79. According to the PIB, what is India’s FRP for sugarcane for the 2026–27 sugar season?
A) ₹300/quintal
B) ₹325/quintal
C) ₹365/quintal
D) ₹400/quintal
Answer: C) ₹365/quintal
Explanation: The government set the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) at ₹365 per quintal for the 2026–27 sugar season. (pib.gov.in)
Q. 80. What does RCMC stand for in India’s export framework?
A) Registered Customs Management Certificate
B) Registration-cum-Membership Certificate
C) Regional Commerce Membership Code
D) Registered Cargo Movement Certificate
Answer: B) Registration-cum-Membership Certificate
Explanation: RCMC stands for Registration-cum-Membership Certificate, generally issued by relevant Export Promotion Councils or commodity boards to exporters.
Q. 81. Which international grouping held its 18th summit in New Delhi in September 2026?
A. G7
B. BRICS
C. ASEAN
D. SAARC
Answer: B. BRICS
Explanation: India hosted the 18th BRICS Summit in New Delhi on 12–13 September 2026.
Q. 82. What major issue has recently created tension in India–US economic relations?
A. Gold imports
B. Tariffs related to Russian oil purchases
C. Tea exports
D. Agricultural subsidies
Answer: B. Tariffs related to Russian oil purchases
Explanation: New US legislative measures could permit substantial tariffs on countries purchasing Russian energy, including India. India has raised concerns about the implications for bilateral relations and global energy markets.
Q. 83. India is approximately the world’s which-largest oil importer?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fifth
Answer: C. Third
Explanation: India is one of the world’s largest crude-oil importers and is commonly ranked third globally by oil imports.
Q. 84. What major issue has India recently raised with the United States regarding Russian oil?
A. Shipping insurance only
B. Possible tariffs affecting Russian-oil buyers
C. Restrictions on Indian wheat
D. Restrictions on Indian medicines
Answer: B. Possible tariffs affecting Russian-oil buyers
Explanation: India has expressed concern that proposed US measures targeting countries purchasing Russian energy could affect bilateral relations and global energy markets.
Q. 85. What position did India hold in the Global Gender Gap Index 2026?
A. 101st
B. 121st
C. 131st
D. 141st
Answer: C. 131st
Explanation: India retained the 131st position in the 2026 Global Gender Gap Index, with an overall parity score reported at 64.5%.
Q. 86. The EPFO wage ceiling for mandatory coverage was recently increased from ₹15,000 to what amount per month?
A) ₹18,000
B) ₹20,000
C) ₹25,000
D) ₹30,000
Answer: C) ₹25,000
Explanation: The Union Cabinet approved increasing the EPFO mandatory wage ceiling from ₹15,000 to ₹25,000 per month, effective from September 17, 2026. The change is expected to bring about 51 lakh additional employees under mandatory coverage. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 87. The revised EPFO wage ceiling came into effect from which date?
A) September 15, 2026
B) September 16, 2026
C) September 17, 2026
D) September 18, 2026
Answer: C) September 17, 2026
Explanation: The revised ceiling became effective on 17 September 2026, coinciding with Vishwakarma Jayanti and Sewa Divas. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 88. PM Vishwakarma completed how many years in September 2026?
A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) 5 years
Answer: C) 3 years
Explanation: PM Vishwakarma, launched on 17 September 2023, completed three years in 2026. The scheme supports traditional artisans through training, toolkits, credit and market linkages. (Insights IAS)
Q. 89. What is the total financial outlay of the PM Vishwakarma Scheme?
A) ₹5,000 crore
B) ₹8,000 crore
C) ₹10,000 crore
D) ₹13,000 crore
Answer: D) ₹13,000 crore
Explanation: PM Vishwakarma has a total financial outlay of ₹13,000 crore for FY 2023–24 to FY 2027–28. (Insights IAS)
Q. 90. How many cheetahs were reported in India after four years of Project Cheetah?
A) 42
B) 48
C) 52
D) 60
Answer: C) 52
Explanation: Project Cheetah completed four years on September 17, 2026, with the reported population reaching 52 cheetahs, including 32 born in India. (Vajiram & Ravi)
Q. 91. How many of India’s reported 52 cheetahs were born in India?
A) 20
B) 25
C) 32
D) 40
Answer: C) 32
Explanation: Of the 52 cheetahs reported under Project Cheetah, 32 were born in India. (Vajiram & Ravi)
Q. 92. Approximately what proportion of Fiji’s population was reported to be living with HIV in the latest reports?
A) 1 in 600
B) 1 in 300
C) 1 in 60
D) 1 in 10
Answer: C) 1 in 60
Explanation: Recent data cited by health authorities indicated that roughly one in 60 Fijians was living with HIV. (AP News)
Q. 93. The 25th meeting of SCO ministers responsible for foreign economic and trade activities was held in which city?
A) Astana
B) Beijing
C) Dushanbe
D) Tashkent
Answer: C) Dushanbe
Explanation: The 25th SCO meeting of ministers responsible for foreign economic and foreign trade activities was held in Dushanbe, Tajikistan, on September 17, 2026. (The Shanghai cooperation organisation)
Q. 94. Dushanbe, the venue of the recent SCO economic ministers’ meeting, is the capital of which country?
A) Uzbekistan
B) Tajikistan
C) Kyrgyzstan
D) Kazakhstan
Answer: B) Tajikistan
Explanation: Dushanbe is the capital of Tajikistan and hosted the SCO economic and trade ministers’ meeting. (The Shanghai cooperation organisation)
Q. 95. What was the theme of WCEF2026?
A) Green Growth for All
B) Circular Economy: Transition for People and Prosperity
C) Zero Waste World
D) Climate Action 2030
Answer: B) Circular Economy: Transition for People and Prosperity
Explanation: WCEF2026 was organised under the theme “Circular Economy: Transition for People and Prosperity.” (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 96. WCEF2026 was held in which Indian city?
A) Ahmedabad
B) Gandhinagar
C) Surat
D) Vadodara
Answer: B) Gandhinagar
Explanation: The 2026 World Circular Economy Forum took place in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. (UNDP)
Q. 97. Which strategic Omani port has recently gained attention as an alternative gateway for cargo amid disruptions around the Strait of Hormuz?
A) Salalah Port
B) Duqm Port
C) Sohar Port
D) Muscat Port
Answer: C) Sohar Port
Explanation: Sohar Port, located outside the Strait of Hormuz, has gained strategic importance as an alternative logistics gateway for Gulf-bound cargo. (Insights IAS)
Q. 98. Which language is set to become an additional administrative language in parts of Karnataka?
A) Konkani
B) Tulu
C) Kodava
D) Sanskrit
Answer: B) Tulu
Explanation: Tulu is set to receive additional administrative-language status in Udupi and Dakshina Kannada districts, according to reports published for 20 September. (The Daily Jagran)
Q. 99. Moody’s revised India’s FY2027 real GDP growth forecast to what rate?
A) 5.5%
B) 6.0%
C) 7.0%
D) 8.0%
Answer: C) 7.0%
Explanation: Moody’s raised its forecast for India’s FY2027 real GDP growth from 6% to 7%, citing economic resilience. (Reuters)
Q. 100. India’s economy grew by what percentage year-on-year in the April–June quarter?
A) 6.2%
B) 7.0%
C) 7.8%
D) 8.5%
Answer: C) 7.8%
Explanation: India’s economy expanded 7.8% year-on-year in the April–June quarter, supported by investment and manufacturing. (Reuters)
Q. 101. Which factor did Moody’s identify as a risk to India’s growth outlook?
A) Global energy prices
B) Falling internet usage
C) Declining exports of software
D) Reduction in agricultural land
Answer: A) Global energy prices
Explanation: Higher global energy prices and potential food-price pressures linked to El Niño were identified as risks. (Reuters)
Q. 102. Which country’s trade minister expressed optimism about concluding a CEPA with India by the end of 2026?
A) Australia
B) Canada
C) Germany
D) France
Answer: B) Canada
Explanation: Canada’s International Trade Minister said Canada was optimistic about finalising a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) with India by the end of 2026. (Reuters)
Q. 103. What does CEPA stand for?
A) Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement
B) Central Economic Policy Agreement
C) Common Export Promotion Agreement
D) Cooperative Economic Planning Arrangement
Answer: A) Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement
Explanation: CEPA is a broad trade agreement covering areas such as goods, services and investment.
Q. 104. The National Stock Exchange’s IPO in September 2026 was described as approximately what size?
A) $500 million
B) $1 billion
C) $2.3 billion
D) $5 billion
Answer: C) $2.3 billion
Explanation: The NSE IPO was reported at approximately $2.3 billion, making it one of India’s largest IPOs. (Reuters)
Q. 105. Which country is currently dealing with attacks claimed by the Houthis near Riyadh?
A) Qatar
B) Saudi Arabia
C) Kuwait
D) Bahrain
Answer: B) Saudi Arabia
Explanation: Reports on 20 September described explosions and fires near Riyadh, with Yemen’s Houthis claiming strikes. (The Indian Express)
Q. 106. Which Indian mission is associated with exploration of Venus?
A) Aditya-L2
B) Venus Orbiter Mission
C) Shukrayaan-2 only
D) Mangalyaan-2
Answer: B) Venus Orbiter Mission
Explanation: India’s Venus Orbiter Mission is designed to study Venus’s atmosphere, surface and other scientific characteristics.
Q. 107. Which organisation is responsible for India’s defence production and exports policy at the central level?
A) Ministry of Defence
B) Ministry of Commerce only
C) Ministry of Finance only
D) Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer: A) Ministry of Defence
Explanation: Defence production and related strategic policies are primarily handled by the Ministry of Defence, with the Department of Defence Production playing a key role.
Q. 108. Which ministry announced the mandatory biometric authentication requirement for subsidised LPG?
A) Ministry of Finance
B) Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas
C) Ministry of Home Affairs
D) Ministry of Consumer Affairs
Answer: B) Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas
Explanation: The announcement was made by the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas.
Q. 109. What is the maximum age mentioned for candidates applying for the MEA internship?
A) 21 years
B) 23 years
C) 25 years
D) 28 years
Answer: C) 25 years
Explanation: Final-year students and recent graduates under 25 years of age are eligible under the reported internship criteria.
Q. 110. Which ministry is associated with the India International Water Week?
A) Ministry of Jal Shakti
B) Ministry of Finance
C) Ministry of Commerce
D) Ministry of Railways
Answer: A) Ministry of Jal Shakti
Explanation: The event is associated with the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
Q. 111. The EPFO wage ceiling was recently enhanced from ₹15,000 to:
A) ₹20,000
B) ₹22,500
C) ₹25,000
D) ₹30,000
Answer: C) ₹25,000
Explanation: The Union Cabinet approved an increase in the EPFO wage ceiling from ₹15,000 to ₹25,000 per month.
Q. 112. EPFO stands for:
A) Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation
B) Employment Pension Finance Office
C) Employees’ Public Finance Organisation
D) Economic Provident Fund Office
Answer: A) Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation
Explanation: EPFO is the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation, which administers India’s major statutory provident-fund and pension-related schemes.
Q. 113. From which date is the Bankers’ Books Evidence Act, 2026 scheduled to come into force?
A) September 1, 2026
B) October 1, 2026
C) November 1, 2026
D) January 1, 2027
Answer: B) October 1, 2026
Explanation: The Bankers’ Books Evidence Act, 2026 is scheduled to come into force on October 1, 2026.
Q. 114. UPI continues to remain free for which type of transactions according to a recent PIB update?
A) Peer-to-peer transactions
B) All international transactions
C) Stock-market transactions
D) All credit-card transactions
Answer: A) Peer-to-peer transactions
Explanation: PIB reported that UPI remains free for peer-to-peer transactions and 96% of merchant transactions.
Q. 115. What percentage of merchant UPI transactions were reported as remaining free?
A) 76%
B) 86%
C) 96%
D) 99%
Answer: C) 96%
Explanation: A recent PIB update stated that UPI remains free for peer-to-peer transactions and 96% of merchant transactions.
Q. 116. Which organisation is responsible for disseminating official Government of India press information?
A) PIB
B) RBI
C) SEBI
D) UPSC
Answer: A) PIB
Explanation: Press Information Bureau (PIB) is the Government of India’s nodal agency for disseminating official information to the media.
Q. 117. What was the approximate closing value of the Indian rupee against the US dollar on 22 September 2026?
A) ₹92.59
B) ₹94.59
C) ₹95.59
D) ₹97.59
Answer: C) ₹95.59
Explanation: Reuters reported that the rupee closed around ₹95.59 per US dollar on 22 September, influenced by oil prices and possible RBI intervention. (Reuters)
Q. 118. Which institution has been using bond sales and foreign-exchange operations to manage liquidity?
A) SEBI
B) RBI
C) NABARD
D) IRDAI
Answer: B) RBI
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India has been using bond sales, FX swaps and related operations to manage excess banking-system liquidity. (Reuters)
Q. 119. According to Reuters, by how much had India’s banking-system liquidity surplus fallen?
A) 25%
B) 35%
C) 45%
D) 55%
Answer: D) 55%
Explanation: Reuters reported that RBI measures reduced the liquidity surplus by about 55%, from ₹11.16 trillion to ₹4.92 trillion. (Reuters)
Q. 120. The Supreme Court recently dealt with the constitutional safeguards available to an arrested person under which Article?
A) Article 19
B) Article 21
C) Article 22
D) Article 32
Answer: C) Article 22
Analytical Explanation: Article 22 provides important safeguards against arbitrary arrest and detention. It includes the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest and the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner. (Legacy IAS Academy)
Q. 121. Which body is associated with the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls?
A) Finance Commission
B) Election Commission of India
C) Union Public Service Commission
D) Law Commission
Answer: B) Election Commission of India
Analytical Explanation: Electoral-roll revision is part of the Election Commission’s constitutional responsibilities. The current discussion around SIR focuses on verification and updating of electoral rolls. (Topper IAS)
Q. 122. India’s planned gross borrowing for FY 2026–27 was reported at approximately:
A) ₹8.09 trillion
B) ₹12.09 trillion
C) ₹16.09 trillion
D) ₹20.09 trillion
Answer: C) ₹16.09 trillion
Analytical Explanation: The borrowing programme is used to finance the government’s fiscal requirements through debt markets. (Reuters)
Q. 123. Moody’s revised India’s FY2027 real GDP growth forecast to:
A) 5%
B) 6%
C) 7%
D) 8%
Answer: C) 7%
Analytical Explanation: Moody’s raised its forecast from 6% to 7%, while also highlighting risks from energy prices and food inflation. (Reuters)
Q. 124. India’s real GDP growth in the April–June quarter was reported at:
A) 5.8%
B) 6.5%
C) 7.8%
D) 8.9%
Answer: C) 7.8%
Analytical Explanation: The reported growth was supported by investment and manufacturing, while mining and some consumer-facing services were weaker. (Reuters)
Q. 125. The Visegrád Group, or V4, consists of Poland, Hungary, the Czech Republic and:
A) Romania
B) Slovakia
C) Slovenia
D) Croatia
Answer: B) Slovakia
Analytical Explanation: The V4 is a Central European regional grouping formed in 1991. India recently held a Foreign Ministers’ meeting in the V4+India format. (Legacy IAS Academy)
Q. 126. Public Sector Banks and Regional Rural Banks were scheduled to operate on which Sunday?
A) 20 September 2026
B) 27 September 2026
C) 28 September 2026
D) 4 October 2026
Answer: B) 27 September 2026
Analytical Explanation: PSBs and RRBs were directed to operate on Sunday, 27 September, ahead of the proposed banking strike and the half-yearly closing period. (Daily GK Update)
Q. 127. The proposed nationwide bank strike in September 2026 was scheduled for which dates?
A) 25–27 September
B) 26–28 September
C) 28–30 September
D) 29 September–1 October
Answer: C) 28–30 September
Analytical Explanation: The proposed three-day strike was scheduled for 28–30 September 2026, making the advance banking arrangements significant for customers and government payments. (Daily GK Update)
Q. 128. Why were certain central-government salaries and pensions disbursed early in September 2026?
A) Diwali bonus
B) Bank strike and half-yearly banking close
C) New financial year
D) Budget revision
Answer: B) Bank strike and half-yearly banking close
Analytical Explanation: Covered September salary, wage and pension payments were arranged for 25 September, ahead of the proposed bank strike and the 30 September half-yearly banking close. (Daily GK Update)
Q. 129. Which department is responsible for the advance disbursement arrangement for covered central-government payments?
A) Department of Revenue
B) Department of Expenditure
C) Department of Financial Services
D) Department of Economic Affairs
Answer: B) Department of Expenditure
Analytical Explanation: The Department of Expenditure under the Ministry of Finance directed the advance disbursement arrangement. (Daily GK Update)
Q. 130. Which financial-market institution recently debuted on the BSE?
A) NSE
B) RBI
C) SEBI
D) IRDAI
Answer: A) NSE
Analytical Explanation: NSE shares began trading on the rival BSE, with the exchange operator’s chairman subsequently discussing the possibility of self-listing on its own platform. (Reuters)
Q. 131. NSE stands for:
A) National Securities Exchange
B) National Stock Exchange
C) National Savings Exchange
D) New Securities Exchange
Answer: B) National Stock Exchange
Analytical Explanation: NSE is India’s major stock exchange and operates the benchmark Nifty index.
Q. 132. INS TRISHUL arrived at which French location for VARUNA 2026?
A) Marseille
B) Toulon
C) Paris
D) Bordeaux
Answer: B) Toulon
Analytical Explanation: PIB reported the arrival of INS Trishul at Toulon, France, for the 24th edition of the bilateral maritime exercise VARUNA. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 133. Fitch Ratings raised India’s FY27 GDP growth forecast to:
A) 5.9%
B) 6.2%
C) 6.9%
D) 7.5%
Answer: C) 6.9%
Analytical Explanation: Fitch revised its FY27 growth forecast for India from 6.4% to 6.9%, following stronger-than-expected economic activity. (The Economic Times)
Q. 134. India’s economy grew by what percentage in the June quarter according to the Fitch-related report?
A) 6.1%
B) 7.0%
C) 7.8%
D) 8.5%
Answer: C) 7.8%
Analytical Explanation: The revision followed reported 7.8% year-on-year growth in the June quarter, which indicated stronger economic activity than previously anticipated. (The Economic Times)
Q. 135. What was India’s RBI repo rate reported in the latest September 2026 current-affairs roundup?
A) 4.75%
B) 5.00%
C) 5.25%
D) 5.75%
Answer: C) 5.25%
Analytical Explanation: The reported repo rate was 5.25%, with the RBI’s monetary-policy stance described as neutral. (ExamAtlas)
Q. 136. Public Sector Banks and Regional Rural Banks were directed to remain operational on which day?
A) Saturday, 26 September
B) Sunday, 27 September
C) Monday, 28 September
D) Wednesday, 30 September
Answer: B) Sunday, 27 September
Analytical Explanation: The government announced that PSBs and RRBs would operate on Sunday, 27 September 2026, in view of the proposed bank strike and the surrounding holidays. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 137. The proposed nationwide bank strike was scheduled for:
A) 25–27 September
B) 26–28 September
C) 28–30 September
D) 29 September–1 October
Answer: C) 28–30 September
Analytical Explanation: The United Forum of Bank Unions had called a proposed three-day nationwide strike for 28–30 September 2026. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 138. Which institution approved the operation of bank branches on 27 September 2026?
A) SEBI
B) NABARD
C) RBI
D) SBI
Answer: C) RBI
Analytical Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India approved the continued operation of bank branches, offices, ATM-linked branches and currency chests on 27 September. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 139. How many sectors are covered by Make in India 2.0 according to the latest reported figures?
A) 20
B) 25
C) 27
D) 30
Answer: C) 27
Analytical Explanation: Make in India 2.0 covers 27 sectors, including 15 manufacturing and 12 services sectors. (MCQ Orbit)
Q. 140. Which rating agency raised India’s FY27 growth forecast to 6.9%?
A) Moody’s
B) Fitch Ratings
C) S&P Global
D) CRISIL
Answer: B) Fitch Ratings
Analytical Explanation: Fitch Ratings increased its FY27 India growth forecast from 6.4% to 6.9%. (The Economic Times)
Q. 141. Which organisation is India’s national standards body?
A) RBI
B) BIS
C) SEBI
D) TRAI
Answer: B) BIS
Analytical Explanation: The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is India’s national standards body and develops standards and conformity-assessment mechanisms for products and services.
Q. 142. India’s record FDI inflow in FY 2025–26 was reported at approximately:
A) $64.53 billion
B) $74.53 billion
C) $84.53 billion
D) $94.53 billion
Answer: D) $94.53 billion
Analytical Explanation: India recorded a reported FDI inflow of $94.53 billion during FY 2025–26, with cumulative FDI since 2014 reaching approximately $843 billion. (Shankar IAS Parliament)
Q. 143. How many economies were covered by the Global Gender Gap Index 2026?
A) 125
B) 135
C) 145
D) 155
Answer: C) 145
Analytical Explanation: The 2026 report covered 145 economies and examined gender parity in economic participation, education, health and political empowerment. (The Indian Express)
Q. 144. What was India’s position in the Global Gender Gap Index 2026?
A) 121st
B) 126th
C) 131st
D) 136th
Answer: C) 131st
Analytical Explanation: India was ranked 131st among 145 countries, with a reported gender parity score of 64.5%. (The Indian Express)
Q. 145. The Geneva Conventions primarily deal with:
A) International trade
B) Humanitarian rules during armed conflict
C) Climate change
D) International taxation
Answer: B) Humanitarian rules during armed conflict
Analytical Explanation: The four Geneva Conventions of 1949 establish important international humanitarian protections, including rules concerning wounded soldiers, prisoners of war and civilians during armed conflicts. (The Indian Express)
Q. 146. Who released the India Electric Mobility Index 2025?
A) RBI
B) NITI Aayog
C) Ministry of Heavy Industries
D) SEBI
Answer: B) NITI Aayog
Analytical Explanation: NITI Aayog released the India Electric Mobility Index 2025 in collaboration with WRI India. The index assesses the development of India’s electric-mobility ecosystem. (The Indian Express)
Q. 147. What does MDR generally stand for in digital payments?
A) Market Deposit Rate
B) Merchant Discount Rate
C) Monetary Deposit Reserve
D) Monthly Digital Revenue
Answer: B) Merchant Discount Rate
Analytical Explanation: MDR stands for Merchant Discount Rate. It refers to the charge associated with processing certain digital/card payment transactions. MDR was among the payment-system issues highlighted in September 2026 current-affairs coverage. (The Indian Express)
Q. 148. What is OneTag associated with?
A) UPI
B) FASTag portability
C) Aadhaar authentication
D) GST registration
Answer: B) FASTag portability
Analytical Explanation: NHAI introduced OneTag through the Rajmargyatra app to allow users to change their FASTag issuer bank without replacing the physical FASTag sticker. (The Indian Express)
Q. 149. The Supreme Court recently refused to stay the Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) framework for certain UPI transactions. What is the proposed MDR for specified person-to-merchant UPI payments above ₹2,000?
A) 0.2%
B) 0.3%
C) 0.4%
D) 0.5%
Answer: C) 0.4%
Analytical Explanation: Under the new framework, a 0.4% MDR is applicable to specified UPI person-to-merchant transactions above ₹2,000 from October 15, 2026. The Supreme Court declined to stay the framework while seeking responses from the Centre and other parties. (The Indian Express)
Q. 150. The new UPI MDR framework is scheduled to become applicable from:
A) October 1, 2026
B) October 10, 2026
C) October 15, 2026
D) November 1, 2026
Answer: C) October 15, 2026
Explanation: The government announced the new MDR framework on September 15, with implementation for specified merchant transactions beginning October 15. (The Indian Express)
Q. 151. Who is the Chief Justice of India mentioned in the Supreme Court proceedings concerning UPI MDR?
A) D.Y. Chandrachud
B) Surya Kant
C) Sanjiv Khanna
D) B.R. Gavai
Answer: B) Surya Kant
Explanation: The bench that considered the challenge to the UPI MDR framework was headed by Chief Justice Surya Kant, along with Justices Joymalya Bagchi and V. Mohana. (The Indian Express)
Q. 152. What was the RBI repo rate after its August 2026 policy meeting?
A) 4.75%
B) 5.00%
C) 5.25%
D) 5.50%
Answer: C) 5.25%
Explanation: The RBI kept the benchmark repo rate at 5.25% in August for the fourth consecutive bi-monthly review. (Reuters)
Q. 153. According to a recent Reuters poll, approximately what percentage of economists expected an RBI repo-rate hike at the October 2026 meeting?
A) 25%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%
Answer: C) 60%
Explanation: 35 of 61 economists, approximately 60%, expected a 25-basis-point increase to 5.50% at the October 5–7 meeting. This is a poll result, not an announced RBI decision. (Reuters)
Q. 154. What repo rate was economists in the Reuters poll expecting after a possible 25-basis-point hike?
A) 5.25%
B) 5.40%
C) 5.50%
D) 5.75%
Answer: C) 5.50%
Explanation: The poll indicated expectations of a 25-basis-point increase from 5.25% to 5.50%. (Reuters)
Q. 155. India’s economy expanded by approximately what rate in the April–June 2026 quarter?
A) 6%
B) 7%
C) Nearly 8%
D) More than 10%
Answer: C) Nearly 8%
Explanation: Recent data showed India’s economy expanding at nearly 8% in the April–June quarter, while bank credit growth also strengthened. (Reuters)
Q. 156. India’s bank credit growth rose to more than what level in July 2026?
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 19%
D) 25%
Answer: C) 19%
Explanation: Bank credit growth exceeded 19% in July, pointing toward stronger domestic demand and credit activity. (Reuters)
Q. 157. On September 28, 2026, the Indian rupee settled at approximately:
A) ₹89.98 per US dollar
B) ₹92.50 per US dollar
C) ₹95.98 per US dollar
D) ₹101.50 per US dollar
Answer: C) ₹95.98 per US dollar
Explanation: The rupee weakened to around ₹95.9825 per US dollar amid higher oil prices and geopolitical uncertainty. (Reuters)
Q. 158. What approximate percentage of India’s crude oil requirements are imported?
A) 50%
B) 65%
C) 75%
D) Nearly 90%
Answer: D) Nearly 90%
Explanation: India’s heavy dependence on imported crude makes the rupee particularly sensitive to international oil-price movements. (Reuters)
Q. 159. Brent crude rose to approximately what price per barrel on September 28, 2026?
A) $88.2
B) $98.2
C) $108.2
D) $118.2
Answer: C) $108.2
Explanation: Brent crude rose nearly 4% to around $108.2 per barrel, increasing concerns over imported inflation in oil-dependent economies. (Reuters)
Q. 160. Which institution is responsible for India’s monetary policy and management of the repo rate?
A) SEBI
B) RBI
C) NABARD
D) Finance Commission
Answer: B) RBI
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India is India’s central bank and is responsible for monetary policy, including policy interest rates.
Q. 161. What does MDR stand for in digital payments?
A) Market Deposit Ratio
B) Merchant Discount Rate
C) Monetary Deposit Reserve
D) Merchant Digital Regulation
Answer: B) Merchant Discount Rate
Explanation: MDR refers to the fee associated with processing certain merchant payment transactions. The current affairs issue concerns its application to specified UPI merchant transactions. (The Indian Express)
Q. 162. India and which country are working toward strengthening their economic and diplomatic partnership, including discussions around a CEPA?
A) Canada
B) Brazil
C) Germany
D) Australia
Answer: A) Canada
Explanation: India and Canada have recently signalled efforts to deepen bilateral relations, including work toward a proposed Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA). (The Indian Express)
Q. 163. Poompuhar, recently discussed in the context of underwater archaeology, is located in which Indian state?
A) Kerala
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Odisha
Answer: C) Tamil Nadu
Explanation: Poompuhar/Kaveripoompattinam was an important ancient port settlement in present-day Tamil Nadu and is associated with Sangam-era maritime trade. (The Indian Express)
Q. 164. Which climatic phenomenon has recently raised concerns for India toward late 2026?
A) La Niña
B) El Niño
C) Polar vortex
D) Indian Ocean Dipole only
Answer: B) El Niño
Explanation: Recent reports have raised concerns that El Niño could become very strong toward late 2026, potentially influencing India’s weather patterns. (The Economic Times)
Q. 165. India’s real GDP growth during Q1 FY27 was reported at approximately:
A. 5.8%
B. 6.5%
C. 7.8%
D. 8.9%
Answer: C. 7.8%
Analytical Explanation: India’s real GDP grew 7.8% year-on-year during April–June 2026. Manufacturing, construction and investment activity were among the factors supporting growth.
Q. 166. India’s gross GST revenue for August 2026 was approximately:
A. ₹1.49 lakh crore
B. ₹1.69 lakh crore
C. ₹1.99 lakh crore
D. ₹2.49 lakh crore
Answer: C. ₹1.99 lakh crore
Analytical Explanation: Gross GST collections reached around ₹1.99 lakh crore in August 2026, reflecting continued tax collection and economic activity.
Q. 167. What Merchant Discount Rate is scheduled to apply to eligible UPI merchant transactions above ₹2,000 from 15 October 2026?
A. 0.2%
B. 0.4%
C. 0.6%
D. 1.0%
Answer: B. 0.4%
Analytical Explanation: The new framework introduces a 0.4% MDR for specified person-to-merchant UPI transactions above ₹2,000. Person-to-person transactions remain outside this MDR framework.
Q. 168. From which date is the new UPI MDR framework scheduled to take effect?
A. 1 October 2026
B. 10 October 2026
C. 15 October 2026
D. 1 November 2026
Answer: C. 15 October 2026
Analytical Explanation: The announced framework is scheduled to begin on 15 October 2026. The Supreme Court has been examining the legal basis of the charge but did not stay its implementation.
Q. 169. Which institution operates the Unified Payments Interface (UPI)?
A. SEBI
B. NPCI
C. IRDAI
D. NABARD
Answer: B. NPCI
Analytical Explanation: UPI is operated by the National Payments Corporation of India. NPCI is central to India’s retail digital-payments infrastructure.
Q. 170. The Supreme Court recently asked the Centre, RBI and NPCI to clarify the legal basis of which issue?
A. FASTag charges
B. UPI MDR
C. ATM withdrawal limits
D. GST on digital wallets
Answer: B. UPI MDR
Analytical Explanation: The Supreme Court sought clarification regarding the legal basis of the proposed merchant discount rate on specified UPI transactions.
Q. 171. What is the new mandatory EPFO wage ceiling announced in September 2026?
A. ₹15,000 per month
B. ₹20,000 per month
C. ₹25,000 per month
D. ₹30,000 per month
Answer: C. ₹25,000 per month
Analytical Explanation: The Union Cabinet increased the mandatory EPFO coverage wage ceiling from ₹15,000 to ₹25,000 per month, expanding the potential coverage of formal social-security arrangements.
Q. 172. Which rating agency upgraded India’s long-term issuer rating from BBB+ to A- in September 2026?
A. Moody’s
B. Fitch
C. Japan Credit Rating Agency
D. S&P Global
Answer: C. Japan Credit Rating Agency
Analytical Explanation: Japan Credit Rating Agency upgraded India’s rating to A- with a stable outlook, marking an improvement in its assessment of India’s credit profile.
Q. 173. Which organization issued final Basel III market-risk capital directions effective from April 2027?
A. SEBI
B. RBI
C. Finance Commission
D. PFRDA
Answer: B. RBI
Analytical Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India issued the relevant directions for commercial banks, with implementation scheduled from 1 April 2027.
Q. 174. Which satellite was earlier known as GISAT-1A?
A. EOS-02
B. EOS-05
C. EOS-07
D. RISAT-3
Answer: B. EOS-05
Analytical Explanation: EOS-05 is the Earth Observation Satellite-05, formerly referred to as GISAT-1A in the reported mission planning.
Q. 175. What does FATF stand for?
A. Financial Action Task Force
B. Federal Anti-Terror Finance
C. Financial Assessment and Trade Forum
D. Foreign Assets Tracking Framework
Answer: A. Financial Action Task Force
Analytical Explanation: FATF is an international body focused on combating money laundering, terrorist financing and related financial crimes.
Q. 176. Chabahar Port is located on which body of water?
A. Persian Gulf
B. Gulf of Oman
C. Red Sea
D. Caspian Sea
Answer: B. Gulf of Oman
Analytical Explanation: Chabahar is an important Iranian port on the Gulf of Oman and has strategic significance for regional connectivity.
International Affairs
Total Questions: 105
Q. 177. India recently signed an additional protocol with which South American trade bloc?
A. ASEAN
B. MERCOSUR
C. SAARC
D. GCC
Answer: B. MERCOSUR
Explanation: India and MERCOSUR signed the First Additional Protocol to their Preferential Trade Agreement to facilitate paperless trade through electronic Certificates of Origin.
Q. 178. What does MERCOSUR refer to?
A. A European defence alliance
B. A South American trade bloc
C. An Asian banking organisation
D. An African economic community
Answer: B. A South American trade bloc
Explanation: MERCOSUR, or the Southern Common Market, is a South American regional trade bloc.
Q. 179. What does e-CoO stand for?
A. Electronic Certificate of Origin
B. Economic Code of Operations
C. Electronic Council of Organisations
D. Export Control Organisation
Answer: A. Electronic Certificate of Origin
Explanation: The India-MERCOSUR protocol facilitates acceptance of electronic Certificates of Origin, helping modernise customs and preferential-trade procedures.
Q. 180. Which country hosted the 69th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference in September 2026?
A. India
B. South Africa
C. Canada
D. Australia
Answer: B. South Africa
Explanation: The 69th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference was being held in Cape Town, South Africa, from 13–19 September 2026.
Q. 181. Which project recently received an MoU involving six Yamuna-basin states/UTs?
A) Renukaji Project
B) Lakhwar Project
C) Kishau Multipurpose Project
D) Ken-Betwa Project
Answer: C) Kishau Multipurpose Project
Explanation: Six states/UTs signed an agreement on September 15, 2026, paving the way for the long-pending Kishau Multipurpose Project. (khanglobalstudies.com, indianexpress.com)
Q. 182. What recent incident increased diplomatic tensions between India and Pakistan?
A) Border trade dispute
B) Naval vessel collision
C) Railway dispute
D) Cricket dispute
Answer: B) Naval vessel collision
Explanation: Indian and Pakistani naval vessels were involved in a collision in the northern Arabian Sea. Both countries subsequently summoned diplomats. (apnews.com)
Q. 183. Which footballer was invited by the Argentine Football Association for a farewell match?
A) Neymar
B) Cristiano Ronaldo
C) Lionel Messi
D) Luis Suárez
Answer: C) Lionel Messi
Explanation: The Argentine Football Association was reported to have invited Lionel Messi to play a farewell match in Argentina. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 184. Which country’s government is pursuing an economic partnership agreement with India?
A) Canada
B) Brazil
C) Germany
D) South Africa
Answer: A) Canada
Explanation: India and Canada were reported to be working toward finalising an economic partnership agreement by the end of 2026. (m.economictimes.com)
Q. 185. Which country has been proposed as the European Union’s first “associate member”?
A) Australia
B) Canada
C) Japan
D) Norway
Answer: B) Canada
Explanation: European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen proposed opening the door for Canada to become the EU’s first associate member, although such a status is not currently established in EU treaties. (reuters.com)
Q. 186. Who is the President of the European Commission?
A) Ursula von der Leyen
B) Roberta Metsola
C) Christine Lagarde
D) Kaja Kallas
Answer: A) Ursula von der Leyen
Explanation: Ursula von der Leyen is the President of the European Commission and delivered the State of the European Union address on September 16, 2026. (reuters.com)
Q. 187. Which global body has an advisory body focused on AI governance?
A) United Nations
B) WTO
C) NATO
D) OPEC
Answer: A) United Nations
Explanation: The UN established a 39-member advisory body on AI governance in 2023. (reuters.com)
Q. 188. Which country experienced a 0.2% month-on-month decline in economic activity in July 2026?
A) Brazil
B) Argentina
C) Mexico
D) Chile
Answer: A) Brazil
Explanation: Brazil’s economic activity declined by a seasonally adjusted 0.2% in July, according to its central bank’s index. (reuters.com)
Q. 189. Which annual event is held at the United Nations Headquarters in New York every September?
A) UN General Assembly high-level week
B) COP Climate Week only
C) WTO Ministerial Conference
D) G20 Summit
Answer: A) UN General Assembly high-level week
Explanation: September brings world leaders and diplomats to New York for the UN General Assembly high-level week. (globalissues.org)
Q. 190. Which project recently received an MoU involving six Yamuna-basin states/UTs?
A) Renukaji Project
B) Lakhwar Project
C) Kishau Multipurpose Project
D) Ken-Betwa Project
Answer: C) Kishau Multipurpose Project
Explanation: Six states/UTs signed an agreement on September 15, 2026, paving the way for the long-pending Kishau Multipurpose Project. (khanglobalstudies.com, indianexpress.com)
Q. 191. What recent incident increased diplomatic tensions between India and Pakistan?
A) Border trade dispute
B) Naval vessel collision
C) Railway dispute
D) Cricket dispute
Answer: B) Naval vessel collision
Explanation: Indian and Pakistani naval vessels were involved in a collision in the northern Arabian Sea. Both countries subsequently summoned diplomats. (apnews.com)
Q. 192. Which footballer was invited by the Argentine Football Association for a farewell match?
A) Neymar
B) Cristiano Ronaldo
C) Lionel Messi
D) Luis Suárez
Answer: C) Lionel Messi
Explanation: The Argentine Football Association was reported to have invited Lionel Messi to play a farewell match in Argentina. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 193. Which country’s government is pursuing an economic partnership agreement with India?
A) Canada
B) Brazil
C) Germany
D) South Africa
Answer: A) Canada
Explanation: India and Canada were reported to be working toward finalising an economic partnership agreement by the end of 2026. (m.economictimes.com)
Q. 194. Which country has been proposed as the European Union’s first “associate member”?
A) Australia
B) Canada
C) Japan
D) Norway
Answer: B) Canada
Explanation: European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen proposed opening the door for Canada to become the EU’s first associate member, although such a status is not currently established in EU treaties. (reuters.com)
Q. 195. Who is the President of the European Commission?
A) Ursula von der Leyen
B) Roberta Metsola
C) Christine Lagarde
D) Kaja Kallas
Answer: A) Ursula von der Leyen
Explanation: Ursula von der Leyen is the President of the European Commission and delivered the State of the European Union address on September 16, 2026. (reuters.com)
Q. 196. Which global body has an advisory body focused on AI governance?
A) United Nations
B) WTO
C) NATO
D) OPEC
Answer: A) United Nations
Explanation: The UN established a 39-member advisory body on AI governance in 2023. (reuters.com)
Q. 197. Which country experienced a 0.2% month-on-month decline in economic activity in July 2026?
A) Brazil
B) Argentina
C) Mexico
D) Chile
Answer: A) Brazil
Explanation: Brazil’s economic activity declined by a seasonally adjusted 0.2% in July, according to its central bank’s index. (reuters.com)
Q. 198. Which annual event is held at the United Nations Headquarters in New York every September?
A) UN General Assembly high-level week
B) COP Climate Week only
C) WTO Ministerial Conference
D) G20 Summit
Answer: A) UN General Assembly high-level week
Explanation: September brings world leaders and diplomats to New York for the UN General Assembly high-level week. (globalissues.org)
Q. 199. What was the theme of the 18th BRICS Summit hosted by India?
A. One Earth, One Future
B. Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability
C. Global Peace and Prosperity
D. One World, One Economy
Answer: B. Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability
Explanation: The theme emphasised resilience, innovation, cooperation and sustainability as major areas of BRICS collaboration.
Q. 200. What declaration was adopted at the 18th BRICS Summit?
A. Mumbai Declaration
B. New Delhi Declaration
C. Delhi Climate Declaration
D. Bharat Declaration
Answer: B. New Delhi Declaration
Explanation: BRICS leaders adopted the New Delhi Declaration at the conclusion of India’s 2026 BRICS Summit.
Q. 201. How many times had India chaired BRICS by the 2026 summit?
A. Two times
B. Three times
C. Four times
D. Five times
Answer: C. Four times
Explanation: India previously chaired BRICS in 2012, 2016 and 2021, making 2026 its fourth chairmanship.
Q. 202. Which Indian institution was proposed as a coordinating centre for a BRICS mental-health training network?
A. AIIMS Delhi
B. NIMHANS Bengaluru
C. PGIMER Chandigarh
D. IIT Delhi
Answer: B. NIMHANS Bengaluru
Explanation: NIMHANS, Bengaluru was identified to coordinate a proposed network involving mental-health training hubs and Centres of Excellence.
Q. 203. Which country is India seeking to cooperate with on the “Year of India-Vietnam Friendship” in 2027?
A. Thailand
B. Vietnam
C. Indonesia
D. Malaysia
Answer: B. Vietnam
Explanation: India and Vietnam agreed to observe 2027 as the “Year of India-Vietnam Friendship,” marking 55 years of diplomatic relations.
Q. 204. Which country is India’s largest export destination according to recent trade data?
A. Russia
B. China
C. United States
D. Japan
Answer: C. United States
Explanation: Recent trade data reported the United States as India’s top export destination.
Q. 205. Which three countries are among the major participants in the 2026 BRICS summit hosted by India?
A. Russia, China and Iran
B. Canada, France and Germany
C. Japan, Australia and Canada
D. Spain, Italy and Mexico
Answer: A. Russia, China and Iran
Explanation: Russia, China and Iran were among the countries represented at the New Delhi BRICS summit.
Q. 206. Who is the President of Russia who visited India for the BRICS summit?
A. Dmitry Medvedev
B. Vladimir Putin
C. Mikhail Mishustin
D. Sergey Lavrov
Answer: B. Vladimir Putin
Explanation: Russian President Vladimir Putin visited New Delhi for the 18th BRICS Summit.
Q. 207. Which Chinese leader attended the 2026 BRICS Summit in India?
A. Li Qiang
B. Xi Jinping
C. Wang Yi
D. Zhao Leji
Answer: B. Xi Jinping
Explanation: Chinese President Xi Jinping was among the major international leaders associated with the New Delhi BRICS summit.
Q. 208. Which organisation is preparing for its General Assembly in September 2026?
A. United Nations
B. ASEAN
C. NATO
D. SAARC
Answer: A. United Nations
Explanation: The annual United Nations General Assembly takes place in September and brings world leaders together to discuss major international issues.
Q. 209. Tavengwa Mukuhlani is associated with which country’s cricket administration?
A. South Africa
B. Zimbabwe
C. Namibia
D. Kenya
Answer: B. Zimbabwe
Explanation: Mukuhlani is the chairman of Zimbabwe Cricket.
Q. 210. Which BRICS initiative focuses on early warning for infectious diseases?
A. BRICS Health Insurance Network
B. BRICS Integrated Early Warning System
C. BRICS Medical Bank
D. BRICS Disease Control Fund
Answer: B. BRICS Integrated Early Warning System
Explanation: The initiative is intended to strengthen cooperation and early warning capabilities relating to infectious diseases.
Q. 211. Which country has been proposed as a potential first “associate member” of the European Union?
A) Australia
B) Canada
C) Japan
D) Norway
Answer: B) Canada
Explanation: European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen proposed opening discussions on a possible associate-member model for Canada. The term is not currently an established membership category under the EU treaties. (Insights IAS)
Q. 212. Which country hosted the 2026 World Circular Economy Forum?
A) India
B) Finland
C) Germany
D) Japan
Answer: A) India
Explanation: The World Circular Economy Forum 2026 (WCEF2026) was held in Gandhinagar, Gujarat, from September 15–18, marking its first edition in South Asia. (UNDP)
Q. 213. Which team did India defeat 3–0 in the recent T20I series?
A) Australia
B) England
C) Afghanistan
D) South Africa
Answer: C) Afghanistan
Explanation: India completed a 3–0 T20I series sweep over Afghanistan after winning the third match in New Delhi. (Al Jazeera)
Q. 214. Which sector was specifically mentioned in India-Canada discussions as an area of cooperation?
A) Energy
B) Textiles only
C) Tourism only
D) Fisheries only
Answer: A) Energy
Explanation: Energy, including liquefied natural gas (LNG) and nuclear cooperation, was highlighted in the ongoing India-Canada discussions. (Reuters)
Q. 215. Which country hosted the 18th BRICS Summit in September 2026?
A) Brazil
B) China
C) India
D) South Africa
Answer: C) India
Explanation: India hosted the 18th BRICS Summit in New Delhi on 12–13 September 2026. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 216. What was the theme of India’s BRICS Chairship in 2026?
A) One Earth, One Future
B) Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability
C) Global Peace through Trade
D) Partnership for a Digital World
Answer: B) Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability
Explanation: The theme of India’s 2026 BRICS Chairship focuses on resilience, innovation, cooperation and sustainability. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 217. Where was the 18th BRICS Summit held?
A) Mumbai
B) Bengaluru
C) New Delhi
D) Hyderabad
Answer: C) New Delhi
Explanation: India hosted the summit in New Delhi on 12–13 September 2026. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 218. What is the primary purpose of the BRICS Payment Task Force?
A) Military cooperation
B) Cross-border payment cooperation
C) Space exploration
D) Agricultural research
Answer: B) Cross-border payment cooperation
Explanation: The BRICS Payment Task Force focuses on improving the efficiency, accessibility and safety of cross-border payments among participating economies. (The Indian Express)
Q. 219. Which institution is associated with local-currency financing within the BRICS framework?
A) IMF
B) World Bank
C) New Development Bank
D) WTO
Answer: C) New Development Bank
Explanation: The New Development Bank (NDB) has an important role in development financing and has been encouraged to expand local-currency financing. (The Indian Express)
Q. 220. Which country recently expressed optimism about protecting Greenland’s sovereignty in discussions involving the United States?
A) Norway
B) Denmark
C) Sweden
D) Iceland
Answer: B) Denmark
Explanation: Denmark and Greenland stated that any agreement with the United States would not compromise Greenland’s sovereignty. (Reuters)
Q. 221. Which country is involved in the current dispute concerning additional tariffs related to Russian oil purchases by India?
A) United States
B) Japan
C) Australia
D) France
Answer: A) United States
Explanation: Recent reports describe tensions surrounding possible additional U.S. tariff measures connected to countries purchasing Russian oil, including India. (Business Recorder)
Q. 222. Exercise Veer Guardian is associated with India and which country?
A) Japan
B) Australia
C) Germany
D) Singapore
Answer: A) Japan
Explanation: Veer Guardian is an India-Japan air-force exercise designed to improve interoperability and cooperation. (CAPSS India)
Q. 223. Which country defeated India 3–1 in the Davis Cup, according to recent reports?
A) Japan
B) Korea
C) Australia
D) China
Answer: B) Korea
Explanation: Korea defeated India 3–1 in the Davis Cup tie, according to reports published around 20 September. (The Daily Jagran)
Q. 224. Which country overtook India at the top of the ICC T20I rankings?
A) Australia
B) England
C) South Africa
D) New Zealand
Answer: B) England
Explanation: England moved to the top of the ICC T20I team rankings after completing a 3–0 series victory over Sri Lanka. (The Indian Express)
Q. 225. The 91st edition of ‘Sundays on Cycle’ was held at which park?
A) Ueno Park
B) Meijō Park
C) Yoyogi Park
D) Nagoya Central Park
Answer: B) Meijō Park
Explanation: The event was organised at Meijō Park in Nagoya, Japan.
Q. 226. The United Nations General Assembly is currently attracting world leaders in which city?
A) Geneva
B) Paris
C) New York
D) Washington, D.C.
Answer: C) New York
Explanation: World leaders are gathering in New York for the UN General Assembly, with conflicts, AI and global governance among major issues.
Q. 227. Who is the current UN Secretary-General whose term ends in 2026?
A) Ban Ki-moon
B) António Guterres
C) Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
D) António Costa
Answer: B) António Guterres
Explanation: António Guterres is serving as UN Secretary-General, with his term ending at the end of 2026.
Q. 228. Which country is notably absent from the current UN General Assembly at the presidential level, with its leader instead planning talks in Washington?
A) India
B) China
C) France
D) Canada
Answer: B) China
Explanation: Chinese President Xi Jinping is not attending the New York gathering and is instead expected to hold bilateral talks with U.S. President Donald Trump in Washington.
Q. 229. Which conflict continues to be a major issue on the UN agenda alongside Middle East developments?
A) Ukraine conflict
B) Falklands conflict
C) Korean War
D) Vietnam War
Answer: A) Ukraine conflict
Explanation: The ongoing Russia–Ukraine war remains a major issue before the UN, including discussions about food and energy security.
Q. 230. Which two countries are partner countries at India International Water Week 2026?
A) Japan and Australia
B) France and Germany
C) Netherlands and Germany
D) USA and UK
Answer: C) Netherlands and Germany
Explanation: The Netherlands and Germany are participating as partner countries in IIWW 2026. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 231. Exercise Veer Guardian 2026 was conducted between India and which country?
A) France
B) Japan
C) Australia
D) South Korea
Answer: B) Japan
Explanation: Veer Guardian 2026 was a bilateral air exercise between the Indian Air Force and Japan Air Self-Defense Force. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 232. Which Indian fighter aircraft participated in Veer Guardian 2026?
A) Tejas
B) MiG-21
C) Jaguar only
D) Kiran
Answer: A) Tejas
Explanation: The IAF fielded LCA Tejas, Su-30MKI and Rafale aircraft during the exercise. Japan participated with F-2A fighters. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 233. Which Japanese fighter aircraft participated in Veer Guardian 2026?
A) F-15J
B) F-2A
C) F-35B
D) F-16
Answer: B) F-2A
Explanation: The Japan Air Self-Defense Force participated with F-2A fighter aircraft. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 234. Where did Nomadic Elephant 2026 commence?
A) Leh
B) Pithoragarh
C) Jaipur
D) Guwahati
Answer: B) Pithoragarh
Explanation: The 18th edition began at the Foreign Training Node, Pithoragarh, Uttarakhand. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 235. When will the India–New Zealand Free Trade Agreement enter into force?
A) 15 August 2026
B) 2 October 2026
C) 20 October 2026
D) 1 January 2027
Answer: C) 20 October 2026
Explanation: India and New Zealand announced that their FTA will enter into force on 20 October 2026. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 236. What percentage of India’s exports to New Zealand will become duty-free from the first day of the FTA?
A) 75%
B) 85%
C) 90%
D) 100%
Answer: D) 100%
Explanation: The agreement provides for 100% of India’s exports to New Zealand to become duty-free from day one. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 237. What investment commitment has New Zealand made under the India–New Zealand FTA framework?
A) US$5 billion
B) US$10 billion
C) US$20 billion
D) US$30 billion
Answer: C) US$20 billion
Explanation: New Zealand committed to facilitate US$20 billion in investment into India under the agreement. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 238. Which organisation is hosting the 81st session of its General Assembly in September 2026?
A) WHO
B) UNESCO
C) United Nations
D) WTO
Answer: C) United Nations
Explanation: World leaders are gathering in New York for the 81st United Nations General Assembly. (The Times of India)
Q. 239. Which country announced an additional US$31 million in flood assistance for Nepal?
A) United Kingdom
B) United States
C) Canada
D) Australia
Answer: B) United States
Explanation: The US announced an additional US$31 million in flood assistance for Nepal, taking its reported assistance since the August disaster to US$36 million. (The Times of India)
Q. 240. Which region is involved in a new US-Denmark-Greenland security agreement?
A) Arctic
B) Antarctic
C) Pacific Islands
D) Caribbean
Answer: A) Arctic
Explanation: The agreement focuses on strengthening Arctic and North Atlantic security, including US military presence in Greenland. (The Times of India)
Q. 241. Greenland is an autonomous territory of which country?
A) Norway
B) Iceland
C) Denmark
D) Sweden
Answer: C) Denmark
Explanation: Greenland is a self-governing territory within the Kingdom of Denmark. The recent US-Denmark-Greenland agreement concerns Arctic security. (The Times of India)
Q. 242. Who is the current UN Secretary-General mentioned in the recent UNGA coverage?
A) Ban Ki-moon
B) António Guterres
C) Kofi Annan
D) Tedros Adhanom
Answer: B) António Guterres
Explanation: António Guterres, the UN Secretary-General, addressed the General Assembly and called for international cooperation amid ongoing conflicts. (AP News)
Q. 243. The 24th edition of VARUNA involves the navies of India and:
A) Italy
B) France
C) Spain
D) Germany
Answer: B) France
Analytical Explanation: VARUNA is India’s dedicated bilateral naval exercise with France. (GKToday)
Q. 244. ISRO and which organisation extended their space-cooperation agreement until 2032?
A) NASA
B) ESA
C) JAXA
D) Roscosmos
Answer: B) ESA
Analytical Explanation: ISRO and the European Space Agency extended their cooperative agreement until January 2032, supporting continued collaboration in space activities. (GKToday)
Q. 245. The BRICS Heads of Tax Authorities Meeting was held in:
A) Mumbai
B) New Delhi
C) Bengaluru
D) Hyderabad
Answer: B) New Delhi
Analytical Explanation: The meeting was held in New Delhi on 23 September as part of India’s BRICS tax-cooperation activities. (GKToday)
Q. 246. The V4+India Foreign Ministers’ meeting was held on the sidelines of:
A) COP30
B) UN General Assembly
C) G20 Summit
D) BRICS Summit
Answer: B) UN General Assembly
Analytical Explanation: The meeting brought India together with the four Visegrád countries in a multilateral diplomatic format. (Legacy IAS Academy)
Q. 247. Which country recently announced its first military space squadron?
A) Germany
B) United Kingdom
C) Canada
D) Japan
Answer: B) United Kingdom
Analytical Explanation: The UK announced No. III Space Effects Squadron as part of its growing military-space capabilities. (GKToday)
Q. 248. Exercise Veer Guardian 2026 is associated with India and which country?
A) Japan
B) Australia
C) Vietnam
D) South Korea
Answer: A) Japan
Analytical Explanation: Veer Guardian is the India–Japan air exercise, and its 2026 edition concluded in September. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 249. Exercise VARUNA is a bilateral maritime exercise between India and:
A) France
B) Germany
C) Italy
D) Greece
Answer: A) France
Analytical Explanation: VARUNA is the bilateral maritime exercise between the Indian and French navies. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 250. Who delivered his final address to the UN General Assembly as Secretary-General in September 2026?
A) Ban Ki-moon
B) António Guterres
C) Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
D) António Costa
Answer: B) António Guterres
Analytical Explanation: António Guterres delivered his final UN General Assembly address before his second term concludes on 31 December 2026. (Reuters)
Q. 251. The UN Climate Summit 2026 was held on which date?
A) 21 September
B) 22 September
C) 23 September
D) 25 September
Answer: C) 23 September
Analytical Explanation: The UN Climate Summit 2026 was convened on 23 September 2026 at UN Headquarters in New York to accelerate climate action. (United Nations)
Q. 252. Which organisation convened the Climate Summit 2026?
A) World Bank
B) United Nations
C) IMF
D) WTO
Answer: B) United Nations
Analytical Explanation: UN Secretary-General António Guterres convened the summit to accelerate climate action and advance a just transition. (United Nations)
Q. 253. Which of the following was among the areas highlighted at the UN Climate Summit 2026?
A) Clean-energy transition
B) Space tourism
C) Cryptocurrency mining
D) Olympic reform
Answer: A) Clean-energy transition
Analytical Explanation: Discussions included scaling clean energy, climate finance, resilience, critical minerals and early-warning systems. (United Nations)
Q. 254. Chinese President Xi Jinping visited which country for talks with Donald Trump in September 2026?
A) United Kingdom
B) United States
C) Canada
D) France
Answer: B) United States
Analytical Explanation: Xi Jinping visited Washington for a three-day summit with U.S. President Donald Trump from 23–25 September. (Reuters)
Q. 255. The September 2026 Trump–Xi summit primarily concerned relations between which two countries?
A) USA and Russia
B) USA and China
C) China and Japan
D) USA and India
Answer: B) USA and China
Analytical Explanation: The summit focused on major issues affecting U.S.–China relations, including trade, technology and geopolitical tensions. (Reuters)
Q. 256. According to reports, which country was discussed in the Trump–Xi talks regarding support for Iran?
A) India
B) China
C) Japan
D) Australia
Answer: B) China
Analytical Explanation: U.S. officials said Trump warned Xi about alleged Chinese support for Iran, while China reportedly gave assurances regarding its position. (Reuters)
Q. 257. Which international organisation’s annual General Assembly was meeting in New York in September 2026?
A) NATO
B) United Nations
C) ASEAN
D) OECD
Answer: B) United Nations
Analytical Explanation: The UN General Assembly’s annual high-level meeting brings world leaders together at UN Headquarters in New York. (AP News)
Q. 258. The UN Climate Summit 2026 emphasized the importance of:
A) Climate finance
B) Fossil-fuel expansion only
C) Reducing international cooperation
D) Ending renewable energy research
Answer: A) Climate finance
Analytical Explanation: Climate finance was one of the key discussion areas, alongside clean-energy transition and community resilience. (United Nations)
Q. 259. Which mineral-related issue was highlighted ahead of the UN Climate Summit?
A) Critical minerals
B) Salt production
C) Gold jewellery
D) Coal exports only
Answer: A) Critical minerals
Analytical Explanation: The UN highlighted initiatives concerning critical minerals as part of accelerating the clean-energy transition. (United Nations)
Q. 260. Which concept is closely associated with the UN Climate Summit’s focus on communities?
A) Climate resilience
B) Space resilience
C) Financial speculation
D) Digital taxation
Answer: A) Climate resilience
Analytical Explanation: Strengthening communities’ resilience to climate impacts was among the summit’s key priorities. (United Nations)
Q. 261. The QUAD consists of India, Australia, Japan and which country?
A) United Kingdom
B) United States
C) France
D) Canada
Answer: B) United States
Analytical Explanation: The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue, commonly called the QUAD, brings together India, Australia, Japan and the United States, with cooperation covering areas including maritime security and a free and open Indo-Pacific. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 262. The 81st session of the United Nations General Assembly is being held in which city?
A) Geneva
B) Paris
C) New York
D) Vienna
Answer: C) New York
Analytical Explanation: The UN General Assembly’s annual General Debate takes place at UN Headquarters in New York.
Q. 263. India’s delegation at the UN General Assembly General Debate was led by:
A) Rajnath Singh
B) S. Jaishankar
C) Nirmala Sitharaman
D) Amit Shah
Answer: B) S. Jaishankar
Analytical Explanation: External Affairs Minister Dr S. Jaishankar led India’s delegation and addressed the General Debate of the 81st UN General Assembly. (ExamAtlas)
Q. 264. Exercise Varuna 2026 is conducted between India and:
A) Germany
B) France
C) Australia
D) Japan
Answer: B) France
Analytical Explanation: Varuna is the India-France bilateral maritime exercise. The 24th edition involved Indian Navy ship INS Trishul at Toulon, France. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 265. Exercise Veer Guardian 2026 was conducted between India and:
A) France
B) Japan
C) Australia
D) United States
Answer: B) Japan
Analytical Explanation: The Indian Air Force conducted the joint air-defence exercise Veer Guardian 2026 with the Japan Air Self-Defense Force. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 266. The 2026 Global Gender Gap Report was released by which organisation?
A) World Bank
B) United Nations
C) World Economic Forum
D) IMF
Answer: C) World Economic Forum
Analytical Explanation: The World Economic Forum released the 2026 Global Gender Gap Report, which evaluates gender parity across four major dimensions. (The Indian Express)
Q. 267. Which country retained the top position in the Global Gender Gap Index 2026?
A) Sweden
B) Iceland
C) Finland
D) Norway
Answer: B) Iceland
Analytical Explanation: Iceland retained the top position globally, having closed about 93% of its gender gap according to the 2026 report. (The Indian Express)
Q. 268. The QUAD comprises India, Australia, Japan and:
A) France
B) United Kingdom
C) United States
D) Canada
Answer: C) United States
Analytical Explanation: The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue, or QUAD, brings together India, Australia, Japan and the United States and focuses on cooperation including maritime security and the Indo-Pacific. (MCQ Questions)
Q. 269. India’s Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman visited which country from September 27–29, 2026?
A) UAE
B) Qatar
C) Saudi Arabia
D) Oman
Answer: B) Qatar
Explanation: Sitharaman undertook an official visit to Qatar from September 27 to 29, including participation in the AIIB annual meeting. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 270. Which annual meeting did Nirmala Sitharaman attend in Doha?
A) World Bank Annual Meeting
B) IMF Annual Meeting
C) AIIB Annual Meeting
D) WTO Ministerial Meeting
Answer: C) AIIB Annual Meeting
Explanation: She attended the 11th Annual Meeting of the Board of Governors of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) in Doha. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 271. India is the world’s second-largest shareholder in which institution?
A) IMF
B) AIIB
C) WTO
D) ADB
Answer: B) AIIB
Explanation: According to the Finance Ministry release, India is the second-largest shareholder of AIIB. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 272. The 81st session of the United Nations General Assembly is being held in:
A) Geneva
B) Paris
C) New York
D) Vienna
Answer: C) New York
Explanation: The UN General Assembly holds its annual high-level meetings at UN Headquarters in New York. The 81st session is currently underway. (United Nations)
Q. 273. On September 28, 2026, the UN held a high-level meeting commemorating the 25th anniversary of which document?
A) Paris Agreement
B) Durban Declaration and Programme of Action
C) Kyoto Protocol
D) Rio Declaration
Answer: B) Durban Declaration and Programme of Action
Explanation: The UN held a high-level meeting to commemorate the 25th anniversary of the adoption of the Durban Declaration and Programme of Action, concerning racism, racial discrimination, xenophobia and related intolerance. (United Nations)
Q. 274. Who is Canada’s Foreign Minister mentioned in recent India-Canada discussions?
A) Mélanie Joly
B) Anita Anand
C) Chrystia Freeland
D) Marie-Claude Bibeau
Answer: B) Anita Anand
Explanation: Canadian Foreign Minister Anita Anand highlighted efforts to build renewed partnerships with major economies including India. (The Indian Express)
Q. 275. Which country chaired BRICS in 2026?
A. Brazil
B. India
C. China
D. Russia
Answer: B. India
Analytical Explanation: India holds the BRICS chairship in 2026 and is hosting the 18th BRICS Summit in New Delhi.
Q. 276. The 18th BRICS Summit in 2026 is being hosted in:
A. Mumbai
B. Bengaluru
C. New Delhi
D. Hyderabad
Answer: C. New Delhi
Analytical Explanation: India is hosting the 18th BRICS Summit in New Delhi during its 2026 chairship.
Q. 277. Which international organization released a report highlighting digital hawala as a rising money-laundering channel?
A. WTO
B. FATF
C. IMF
D. UNESCO
Answer: B. FATF
Analytical Explanation: The Financial Action Task Force examined underground banking, professional money laundering and the use of hawala and similar service providers.
Q. 278. Which country completed construction of the approximately 730-km Chabahar-Zahedan railway in September 2026?
A. India
B. Iran
C. Afghanistan
D. Pakistan
Answer: B. Iran
Analytical Explanation: The railway connects Chabahar Port with Zahedan and Iran’s wider railway network, giving the port greater connectivity toward Central Asia.
Q. 279. Which countries signed a defence Letter of Intent with India during September 2026?
A. Belgium and India
B. France and India
C. Japan and India
D. Germany and India
Answer: A. Belgium and India
Analytical Explanation: During Belgian Prime Minister Bart De Wever’s visit, India and Belgium signed a defence Letter of Intent and launched an investment fast-track mechanism.
Q. 280. The inaugural Partners for Multilateralism summit in September 2026 was held on the sidelines of which event?
A. COP31
B. UN General Assembly
C. G20 Summit
D. WTO Ministerial Conference
Answer: B. UN General Assembly
Analytical Explanation: The P4M summit was held in New York on the margins of the 81st United Nations General Assembly.
Q. 281. Which team did the Indian women’s hockey team defeat to finish fifth at the 2026 FIH Women’s Hockey World Cup?
A. Netherlands
B. Germany
C. Australia
D. Argentina
Answer: B. Germany
Analytical Explanation: India defeated Germany 3–1 to finish fifth. The result was reported as India’s best Women’s Hockey World Cup finish since 1974.
Defence & Security
Total Questions: 85
Q. 282. Which organisation proposed a new weapon and missile testing range at Junput?
A. ISRO
B. DRDO
C. HAL
D. BHEL
Answer: B. DRDO
Explanation: DRDO proposed establishing a new weapon and missile testing range at Junput in West Bengal.
Q. 283. Junput is located in which state?
A. Odisha
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. West Bengal
D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: C. West Bengal
Explanation: Junput is a coastal village in Purba Medinipur district of West Bengal along the Bay of Bengal.
Q. 284. Which organisation is responsible for India’s defence research and development?
A. DRDO
B. ISRO
C. CSIR
D. NITI Aayog
Answer: A. DRDO
Explanation: The Defence Research and Development Organisation works under the Ministry of Defence and develops technologies and systems for India’s defence requirements.
Q. 285. Where was the Colombo Security Conclave Table Top Exercise held?
A. Mumbai
B. Visakhapatnam
C. Kochi
D. Chennai
Answer: B. Visakhapatnam
Explanation: A three-day Table Top Exercise under the Colombo Security Conclave concluded at the Eastern Naval Command in Visakhapatnam.
Q. 286. What was the primary focus of the Colombo Security Conclave exercise?
A. Space exploration
B. Maritime security
C. Agricultural production
D. Cyber taxation
Answer: B. Maritime security
Explanation: The exercise focused on coordinated responses to illegal maritime activities in the Indian Ocean Region.
Q. 287. Which Indian police officer became the first woman officer to head the CRPF’s CoBRA unit?
A. Kiran Bedi
B. Sanjukta Parashar
C. Meera Borwankar
D. Aparna Kumar
Answer: B. Sanjukta Parashar
Explanation: IPS officer Sanjukta Parashar became the first woman officer to head the CRPF’s CoBRA unit in September 2026.
Q. 288. The Kishau Multipurpose Project is proposed on which river?
A) Ganga
B) Tons
C) Chambal
D) Sutlej
Answer: B) Tons
Explanation: Kishau is a proposed dam and hydropower project on the Tons River, a major tributary of the Yamuna, on the Himachal Pradesh–Uttarakhand border. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 289. Which organisation launched CYBER KUSHTI 2026?
A) DRDO
B) ISRO
C) NIELIT
D) CERT-In
Answer: C) NIELIT
Explanation: The National Institute of Electronics and Information Technology (NIELIT) launched CYBER KUSHTI 2026, a national cybersecurity and AI hackathon. (pib.gov.in)
Q. 290. Which conference of the Indian Coast Guard is scheduled for September 17–19, 2026?
A) 40th Commanders’ Conference
B) 41st Commanders’ Conference
C) 42nd Commanders’ Conference
D) 43rd Commanders’ Conference
Answer: D) 43rd Commanders’ Conference
Explanation: The 43rd Indian Coast Guard Commanders’ Conference is scheduled in New Delhi from September 17–19, 2026. (pib.gov.in)
Q. 291. Where will the 43rd Indian Coast Guard Commanders’ Conference be held?
A) Mumbai
B) Kochi
C) New Delhi
D) Visakhapatnam
Answer: C) New Delhi
Explanation: The conference will take place at the Coast Guard Headquarters in New Delhi. (pib.gov.in)
Q. 292. Who is scheduled to address the opening day of the 43rd ICG Commanders’ Conference?
A) Rajnath Singh
B) Sanjay Seth
C) Amit Shah
D) Jitendra Singh
Answer: B) Sanjay Seth
Explanation: Raksha Rajya Mantri Sanjay Seth is scheduled to address the senior leadership on the opening day. (pib.gov.in)
Q. 293. Which country has extended its airspace restrictions affecting Indian flights?
A) Bangladesh
B) Nepal
C) Pakistan
D) Afghanistan
Answer: C) Pakistan
Explanation: Current-affairs reports on September 17 said Pakistan had extended restrictions on Indian flights for another month. (m.economictimes.com)
Q. 294. Where did the reported India-Pakistan naval collision occur?
A) Bay of Bengal
B) Arabian Sea
C) Red Sea
D) Indian Ocean near Sri Lanka
Answer: B) Arabian Sea
Explanation: The reported collision occurred in the northern Arabian Sea. The two sides differed over the precise legal status of the waters. (apnews.com)
Q. 295. Which country is working with India to deepen defence cooperation, according to September 16 reports?
A) Vietnam
B) Japan
C) Australia
D) Indonesia
Answer: A) Vietnam
Explanation: India and Vietnam were reported to be strengthening their defence cooperation. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 296. The Kishau Multipurpose Project is proposed on which river?
A) Ganga
B) Tons
C) Chambal
D) Sutlej
Answer: B) Tons
Explanation: Kishau is a proposed dam and hydropower project on the Tons River, a major tributary of the Yamuna, on the Himachal Pradesh–Uttarakhand border. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 297. Which organisation launched CYBER KUSHTI 2026?
A) DRDO
B) ISRO
C) NIELIT
D) CERT-In
Answer: C) NIELIT
Explanation: The National Institute of Electronics and Information Technology (NIELIT) launched CYBER KUSHTI 2026, a national cybersecurity and AI hackathon. (pib.gov.in)
Q. 298. Which conference of the Indian Coast Guard is scheduled for September 17–19, 2026?
A) 40th Commanders’ Conference
B) 41st Commanders’ Conference
C) 42nd Commanders’ Conference
D) 43rd Commanders’ Conference
Answer: D) 43rd Commanders’ Conference
Explanation: The 43rd Indian Coast Guard Commanders’ Conference is scheduled in New Delhi from September 17–19, 2026. (pib.gov.in)
Q. 299. Where will the 43rd Indian Coast Guard Commanders’ Conference be held?
A) Mumbai
B) Kochi
C) New Delhi
D) Visakhapatnam
Answer: C) New Delhi
Explanation: The conference will take place at the Coast Guard Headquarters in New Delhi. (pib.gov.in)
Q. 300. Who is scheduled to address the opening day of the 43rd ICG Commanders’ Conference?
A) Rajnath Singh
B) Sanjay Seth
C) Amit Shah
D) Jitendra Singh
Answer: B) Sanjay Seth
Explanation: Raksha Rajya Mantri Sanjay Seth is scheduled to address the senior leadership on the opening day. (pib.gov.in)
Q. 301. Which country has extended its airspace restrictions affecting Indian flights?
A) Bangladesh
B) Nepal
C) Pakistan
D) Afghanistan
Answer: C) Pakistan
Explanation: Current-affairs reports on September 17 said Pakistan had extended restrictions on Indian flights for another month. (m.economictimes.com)
Q. 302. Where did the reported India-Pakistan naval collision occur?
A) Bay of Bengal
B) Arabian Sea
C) Red Sea
D) Indian Ocean near Sri Lanka
Answer: B) Arabian Sea
Explanation: The reported collision occurred in the northern Arabian Sea. The two sides differed over the precise legal status of the waters. (apnews.com)
Q. 303. Which country is working with India to deepen defence cooperation, according to September 16 reports?
A) Vietnam
B) Japan
C) Australia
D) Indonesia
Answer: A) Vietnam
Explanation: India and Vietnam were reported to be strengthening their defence cooperation. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 304. Which country participated in a special “Finland Day” during WCEF2026?
A) Sweden
B) Denmark
C) Finland
D) Iceland
Answer: C) Finland
Explanation: Finland Day was organised as an accelerator session during WCEF2026 to promote Finland–India cooperation in circular economy and climate action. (Suomi ulkomailla)
Q. 305. Which organisation is responsible for India’s major planetary exploration missions?
A) DRDO
B) ISRO
C) CSIR
D) BHEL
Answer: B) ISRO
Explanation: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) conducts India’s major space and planetary exploration missions.
Q. 306. Yudh Abhyas is a military exercise between India and which country?
A) Russia
B) United States
C) Japan
D) France
Answer: B) United States
Explanation: Yudh Abhyas is a bilateral military exercise between the Indian and U.S. armies. The 2026 edition was being conducted in Auli and Bikaner. (The Indian Express)
Q. 307. Exercise LAMITIYE is associated with India’s cooperation with which country?
A) Seychelles
B) Canada
C) Brazil
D) Vietnam
Answer: A) Seychelles
Explanation: LAMITIYE is a bilateral military exercise involving India and Seychelles, reflecting defence cooperation between the two countries. (The Indian Express)
Q. 308. Operation Polo is associated with the integration of which princely state into India?
A) Hyderabad
B) Mysore
C) Travancore
D) Bhopal
Answer: A) Hyderabad
Explanation: Operation Polo was the 1948 military action through which Hyderabad was integrated into the Indian Union. (The Indian Express)
Q. 309. The Fourth Geneva Convention primarily concerns the protection of:
A) Soldiers only
B) Civilians during wartime
C) Naval vessels
D) Diplomatic missions only
Answer: B) Civilians during wartime
Explanation: The Fourth Geneva Convention focuses on the protection of civilian persons during armed conflict.
Q. 310. Which organisation approved ₹252 crore for Kavach 4.0?
A) NITI Aayog
B) Ministry of Defence
C) Indian Railways
D) Ministry of Finance
Answer: C) Indian Railways
Explanation: Indian Railways approved ₹252 crore for deployment of Kavach 4.0 across 607.7 route kilometres of the Lucknow Division.
Q. 311. Kavach is primarily associated with which sector?
A) Banking security
B) Railway safety
C) Cybersecurity
D) Airport security
Answer: B) Railway safety
Explanation: Kavach is India’s indigenous Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system designed to improve railway safety and help prevent collisions.
Q. 312. Which technology was highlighted in recent news for improving railway safety on the Lucknow Division?
A) 5G
B) Kavach 4.0
C) GPS-Plus
D) RailNet 5.0
Answer: B) Kavach 4.0
Explanation: Indian Railways approved ₹252 crore for Kavach 4.0 covering 607.7 route kilometres of the Lucknow Division.
Q. 313. Which of the following is the correct pair?
A) Kavach — Railway safety
B) BESS — Election management
C) DDU-GKY — Space research
D) EPFO — Weather forecasting
Answer: A) Kavach — Railway safety
Explanation: Kavach is an indigenous railway safety/Automatic Train Protection system. BESS relates to energy storage, DDU-GKY to rural skilling, and EPFO to provident-fund administration.
Q. 314. Exercise Nomadic Elephant is conducted between India and which country?
A) Kazakhstan
B) Mongolia
C) Uzbekistan
D) Kyrgyzstan
Answer: B) Mongolia
Explanation: Nomadic Elephant is an annual joint military exercise between the Indian Army and Mongolian Armed Forces. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 315. How many personnel from each side are participating in Nomadic Elephant 2026?
A) 25
B) 35
C) 45
D) 55
Answer: C) 45
Explanation: The Indian Army and Mongolian Armed Forces are each represented by 45 personnel. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 316. What is a major focus of Nomadic Elephant 2026?
A) Naval warfare
B) Counter-insurgency operations
C) Space warfare
D) Submarine operations
Answer: B) Counter-insurgency operations
Explanation: The exercise aims to enhance joint capabilities for counter-insurgency operations in semi-urban and mountainous terrain under a UN mandate. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 317. Which technology is included in the training curriculum of Nomadic Elephant 2026?
A) Drones and counter-drone systems
B) Nuclear submarines
C) Aircraft carriers
D) Ballistic missiles
Answer: A) Drones and counter-drone systems
Explanation: Training includes drones and counter-drone systems, cyber security, cordon-and-search operations and special heliborne operations. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 318. Which Indian naval ships recently arrived at Subic Bay, Philippines, according to PIB updates?
A) INS Vikrant and INS Vikramaditya
B) INS Sahyadri and INS Kulish
C) INS Kolkata and INS Chennai
D) INS Shivalik and INS Satpura
Answer: B) INS Sahyadri and INS Kulish
Explanation: PIB’s September 22 defence updates reported the arrival of INS Sahyadri and INS Kulish at Subic Bay for ADMM-Plus-related activity. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 319. The 13th edition of SLINEX is a bilateral naval exercise between India and which country?
A) Bangladesh
B) Sri Lanka
C) Myanmar
D) Thailand
Answer: B) Sri Lanka
Analytical Explanation: SLINEX is the India–Sri Lanka bilateral maritime exercise. It is designed to strengthen interoperability and cooperation between the two navies. (Topper IAS)
Q. 320. SAT-SAAW is developed by which organisation?
A) ISRO
B) DRDO
C) HAL
D) BEL
Answer: B) DRDO
Analytical Explanation: SAT-SAAW is an indigenous air-to-ground precision-guided glide weapon designed to engage airfield-related targets from stand-off ranges. (GKToday)
Q. 321. The Ministry of Defence signed a contract worth approximately ₹810.79 crore for how many SAT-SAAW weapons?
A) 100
B) 120
C) 160
D) 200
Answer: C) 160
Analytical Explanation: The contract with Bharat Dynamics Limited covers 160 SAT-SAAW systems and associated equipment for the Indian Air Force. (GKToday)
Q. 322. Exercise Yudh Abhyas is conducted between India and:
A) France
B) Japan
C) United States
D) Australia
Answer: C) United States
Analytical Explanation: Yudh Abhyas is a bilateral India–US military exercise aimed at improving interoperability and operational coordination. (GKToday)
Q. 323. The 22nd edition of Exercise Yudh Abhyas 2026 was conducted in which two Indian states?
A) Rajasthan and Uttarakhand
B) Gujarat and Maharashtra
C) Punjab and Haryana
D) Kerala and Karnataka
Answer: A) Rajasthan and Uttarakhand
Analytical Explanation: The exercise was conducted at Mahajan Field Firing Range in Rajasthan and Auli in Uttarakhand. (GKToday)
Q. 324. INS Trishul recently arrived at Toulon for which India-France maritime exercise?
A) VARUNA
B) KONKAN
C) INDRA
D) MALABAR
Answer: A) VARUNA
Analytical Explanation: VARUNA is the bilateral maritime exercise between India and France. INS Trishul’s participation reflects continuing naval cooperation between the two countries. (GKToday)
Q. 325. The United Kingdom announced its first military space squadron under which name?
A) No. I Space Command Squadron
B) No. III Space Effects Squadron
C) Royal Space Defence Squadron
D) UK Orbital Security Squadron
Answer: B) No. III Space Effects Squadron
Analytical Explanation: The new squadron reflects the growing military importance of space-based capabilities, including satellite protection and counter-space activities. (GKToday)
Q. 326. DRDO recently signed an agreement to develop a dilution refrigerator operating at approximately:
A) 2 Kelvin
B) 20 Kelvin
C) 20 milliKelvin
D) 200 milliKelvin
Answer: C) 20 milliKelvin
Analytical Explanation: Extremely low temperatures are essential for many quantum-computing systems. The DRDO agreement is therefore connected with India’s emerging quantum technology ecosystem. (Topper IAS)
Q. 327. South Central Railway recently upgraded which train-safety system to Version 4.0?
A) Kavach
B) Rakshak
C) Vajra
D) Suraksha-Net
Answer: A) Kavach
Analytical Explanation: Kavach is India’s indigenous automatic train protection system. Version upgrades are aimed at improving railway safety and collision prevention. (GKToday)
Q. 328. Kavach Version 4.0 was commissioned on which railway section mentioned in recent reports?
A) Delhi–Agra
B) Malkajgiri–Kamareddi
C) Mumbai–Pune
D) Howrah–Kolkata
Answer: B) Malkajgiri–Kamareddi
Analytical Explanation: The upgraded system was commissioned over a 108-route-km section of South Central Railway. (GKToday)
Q. 329. The Global River Cities Alliance is primarily associated with:
A) Space research
B) Urban river management
C) Military cooperation
D) Agricultural exports
Answer: B) Urban river management
Analytical Explanation: The alliance promotes integrated approaches to managing rivers within urban areas, including planning and restoration. (Legacy IAS Academy)
Q. 330. Which organisation conducted the first high-value deep-tech agreement under the TDF scheme?
A) ISRO
B) DRDO
C) CSIR
D) NITI Aayog
Answer: B) DRDO
Analytical Explanation: DRDO signed the agreement under its Technology Development Fund (TDF) scheme for indigenous development of a cryogenic system for quantum applications. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 331. What is the target temperature of the dilution refrigerator being developed under the DRDO project?
A) 20 K
B) 20 mK
C) 200 K
D) 2 mK
Answer: B) 20 mK
Analytical Explanation: The project involves a 20 millikelvin (20 mK) dilution refrigerator, designed for extremely low-temperature quantum applications. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 332. Which start-up is partnering with DRDO on the 20 mK dilution refrigerator project?
A) Zero mK India Pvt Ltd
B) Skyroot Aerospace
C) Agnikul Cosmos
D) Pixxel
Answer: A) Zero mK India Pvt Ltd
Analytical Explanation: DRDO signed the high-value TDF agreement with Zero mK India Private Limited, based in Alwar, Rajasthan. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 333. The Technology Development Fund is associated with which organisation?
A) RBI
B) DRDO
C) SEBI
D) UGC
Answer: B) DRDO
Analytical Explanation: The TDF scheme supports the development of indigenous defence technologies, including deep-tech and cutting-edge technologies. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 334. What is the approved corpus mentioned for the DRDO deep-tech TDF projects?
A) ₹100 crore
B) ₹250 crore
C) ₹500 crore
D) ₹1,000 crore
Answer: C) ₹500 crore
Analytical Explanation: The 20 mK dilution refrigerator agreement is the first high-value agreement under a ₹500-crore corpus approved for deep-tech and cutting-edge projects. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 335. Which company received the contract for 160 Satellite-Assisted Anti-Airfield Weapons (SAAW)?
A) HAL
B) BDL
C) BEL
D) DRDO
Answer: B) BDL
Analytical Explanation: The Ministry of Defence signed a contract worth about ₹811 crore with Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) for 160 SAAWs for the Indian Air Force. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 336. SAAW is primarily associated with which service?
A) Indian Navy
B) Indian Army
C) Indian Air Force
D) Coast Guard
Answer: C) Indian Air Force
Analytical Explanation: The contract is for weapons intended for the Indian Air Force, strengthening indigenous precision-strike capabilities. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 337. Exercise SLINEX is conducted between India and which country?
A) Sri Lanka
B) Singapore
C) Indonesia
D) Thailand
Answer: A) Sri Lanka
Analytical Explanation: SLINEX is the India–Sri Lanka bilateral maritime exercise designed to improve interoperability and naval cooperation. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 338. Exercise Yudh Abhyas is conducted between India and which country?
A) Russia
B) France
C) United States
D) Japan
Answer: C) United States
Analytical Explanation: Yudh Abhyas is the bilateral Army exercise between India and the United States. The 2026 edition is the 22nd edition. (Daily GK Update)
Q. 339. Which Indian location is associated with Exercise Yudh Abhyas 2026?
A) Auli
B) Kochi
C) Port Blair
D) Pune
Answer: A) Auli
Analytical Explanation: The 2026 exercise includes training at Auli in Uttarakhand and the Mahajan Field Firing Range in Rajasthan. (Daily GK Update)
Q. 340. Mahajan Field Firing Range is located in which state?
A) Punjab
B) Haryana
C) Rajasthan
D) Gujarat
Answer: C) Rajasthan
Analytical Explanation: The Mahajan Field Firing Range is an important military training area in Rajasthan and was one of the locations for Yudh Abhyas 2026. (Daily GK Update)
Q. 341. Exercise Nomadic Elephant is conducted between India and:
A) Mongolia
B) Kazakhstan
C) Uzbekistan
D) Kyrgyzstan
Answer: A) Mongolia
Analytical Explanation: Nomadic Elephant is the India–Mongolia joint military exercise. The 2026 edition commenced at Pithoragarh. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 342. Which organisation is India’s primary space agency?
A) DRDO
B) ISRO
C) CSIR
D) BARC
Answer: B) ISRO
Analytical Explanation: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is India’s principal space agency and is responsible for the country’s major space missions.
Q. 343. Which principle was emphasized in India’s message at the International Space Summit?
A) Space should be militarised
B) Space should be safe, secure and peaceful
C) Space exploration should be restricted
D) Only one country should explore space
Answer: B) Space should be safe, secure and peaceful
Analytical Explanation: India’s stated position emphasized international law, dialogue, cooperation and sustainable use of the space domain. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 344. Indian Coast Guard Ship Shaunak recently sailed for which country as part of the QUAD-at-Sea Ship Observer Mission?
A) Japan
B) United States
C) Australia
D) Indonesia
Answer: C) Australia
Analytical Explanation: ICG Ship Shaunak sailed from Chennai for Perth, Australia, carrying six officers from India, Japan, Australia and the United States for professional exchanges and maritime cooperation. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 345. What is the main purpose of the QUAD-at-Sea Ship Observer Mission?
A) Space exploration
B) Maritime cooperation and interoperability
C) Agricultural research
D) Currency cooperation
Answer: B) Maritime cooperation and interoperability
Analytical Explanation: The mission provides opportunities for professional exchanges among the four QUAD countries and is intended to strengthen interoperability, coordination and mutual trust. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 346. Which Indian Navy ship participated in the 24th edition of Exercise Varuna?
A) INS Vikrant
B) INS Kolkata
C) INS Trishul
D) INS Chennai
Answer: C) INS Trishul
Analytical Explanation: INS Trishul arrived at Toulon, France, for the 24th edition of the India-France bilateral maritime exercise Varuna. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 347. SLINEX is a bilateral maritime exercise between India and:
A) Sri Lanka
B) Singapore
C) Seychelles
D) Indonesia
Answer: A) Sri Lanka
Analytical Explanation: SLINEX stands for the India-Sri Lanka bilateral maritime exercise and is aimed at strengthening maritime cooperation and interoperability. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 348. Exercise Nomadic Elephant is conducted between India and:
A) Mongolia
B) Kazakhstan
C) Uzbekistan
D) Vietnam
Answer: A) Mongolia
Analytical Explanation: Nomadic Elephant is an India-Mongolia joint military exercise. The 2026 edition commenced at Pithoragarh. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 349. DRDO recently signed a deep-tech project agreement for indigenous development of what?
A) Hydrogen fuel cells
B) Dilution refrigerator for quantum applications
C) Solar panels
D) Semiconductor chips
Answer: B) Dilution refrigerator for quantum applications
Analytical Explanation: DRDO signed its first high-value deep-tech project agreement with a startup under the Technology Development Fund (TDF) scheme for an indigenous 20 mK dilution refrigerator for quantum applications. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 350. The Ministry of Defence signed a contract worth approximately ₹811 crore for how many Satellite Smart Anti-Airfield Weapons?
A) 80
B) 120
C) 160
D) 200
Answer: C) 160
Analytical Explanation: The MoD signed a contract with Bharat Dynamics Limited for 160 Satellite Smart Anti-Airfield Weapons, valued at around ₹811 crore. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 351. According to S. Jaishankar, AI can help maritime security through:
A) Maritime-domain awareness
B) Search and rescue
C) Disaster response
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Analytical Explanation: AI can support maritime-domain awareness, search and rescue, disaster response, identification of suspicious activity and resilience of critical infrastructure. (Akashvani News)
Q. 352. The Kishau Multipurpose Project is proposed on which river?
A) Ganga
B) Tons
C) Sutlej
D) Ravi
Answer: B) Tons
Analytical Explanation: The Kishau Multipurpose Project is a proposed dam and hydropower project on the Tons River, a major tributary of the Yamuna, along the Himachal Pradesh–Uttarakhand border. (The Indian Express)
Q. 353. Which app is associated with the OneTag FASTag portability service?
A) DigiLocker
B) Rajmargyatra
C) UMANG
D) BHIM
Answer: B) Rajmargyatra
Analytical Explanation: OneTag was made operational through the Rajmargyatra app and is intended to simplify switching between FASTag issuer banks. (The Indian Express)
Q. 354. Yudh Abhyas is a military exercise between India and:
A) France
B) Russia
C) United States
D) Japan
Answer: C) United States
Analytical Explanation: Yudh Abhyas is the annual bilateral military exercise between the Indian and US armies. The 2026 edition focuses on joint operations, drones, autonomous systems and operations in difficult terrain. (The Indian Express)
Q. 355. Which edition of Yudh Abhyas was underway in 2026?
A) 20th
B) 21st
C) 22nd
D) 23rd
Answer: C) 22nd
Analytical Explanation: The 22nd edition of Yudh Abhyas 2026 was conducted at locations including Auli in Uttarakhand and the Mahajan Field Firing Range in Rajasthan. (The Indian Express)
Q. 356. Which Indian force’s specialised CoBRA unit got its first woman head in 2026?
A) BSF
B) CRPF
C) CISF
D) ITBP
Answer: B) CRPF
Analytical Explanation: IPS officer Sanjukta Parashar became the first woman officer to head the CRPF’s CoBRA unit as Inspector General. (The Indian Express)
Q. 357. What does CoBRA stand for?
A) Combat Battalion for Rapid Action
B) Commando Battalion for Resolute Action
C) Central Battalion for Reconnaissance Action
D) Command Battalion for Regional Action
Answer: B) Commando Battalion for Resolute Action
Analytical Explanation: CoBRA stands for Commando Battalion for Resolute Action. It is a specialised CRPF formation trained for jungle and guerrilla warfare operations. (The Indian Express)
Q. 358. Indian Coast Guard Ship Shaunak sailed for which country for the QUAD-at-Sea Ship Observer Mission?
A) Japan
B) Australia
C) Singapore
D) Indonesia
Answer: B) Australia
Analytical Explanation: ICG Ship Shaunak sailed from Chennai towards Perth, Australia, as part of a maritime professional-exchange initiative involving QUAD countries. (MCQ Questions)
Q. 359. Which organisation celebrated its 85th Foundation Day on 26 September 2026?
A) DRDO
B) CSIR
C) ISRO
D) DST
Answer: B) CSIR
Analytical Explanation: The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research celebrated its 85th Foundation Day on 26 September 2026. CSIR was founded on 26 September 1942. (Shankar IAS Parliament)
Q. 360. What is the principal purpose of KAVACH technology in Indian Railways?
A) Passenger ticketing
B) Automatic train protection
C) Railway catering
D) Freight billing
Answer: B) Automatic train protection
Explanation: KAVACH is a railway safety system designed to provide continuous speed supervision and help prevent incidents such as Signal Passing at Danger (SPAD) and train collisions. (The Indian Express)
Q. 361. What does CITES stand for?
A) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
B) Council for International Trade in Environmental Species
C) Convention for Indian Trade in Endangered Species
D) Committee on International Terrestrial Ecosystem Security
Answer: A) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
Explanation: CITES is an international agreement designed to ensure that international trade in wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival. (The Indian Express)
Q. 362. Poompuhar is particularly significant for understanding which historical phenomenon?
A) Mughal administration
B) Sangam-era maritime trade
C) Gupta coinage
D) Mauryan military organization
Answer: B) Sangam-era maritime trade
Explanation: Archaeological and literary evidence links Poompuhar with wider Indian Ocean maritime trade, including connections with West Asia and other regions. (The Indian Express)
Q. 363. Which organization commissioned INS Nipun in September 2026?
A. Indian Army
B. Indian Air Force
C. Indian Navy
D. Coast Guard
Answer: C. Indian Navy
Analytical Explanation: INS Nipun is a Diving Support Vessel commissioned by the Indian Navy. Such vessels strengthen underwater operations, diving support and submarine-rescue capabilities.
Q. 364. Which institution unveiled the indigenous ‘Chitra Core’ coronary drug-eluting stent?
A. AIIMS New Delhi
B. SCTIMST
C. IIT Madras
D. DRDO
Answer: B. SCTIMST
Analytical Explanation: The Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Sciences and Technology in Thiruvananthapuram unveiled Chitra Core. It represents an indigenous effort to develop affordable cardiovascular medical technology.
Q. 365. Which platform became the first TReDS platform to operationalize CGTMSE guarantee cover?
A. M1xchange
B. UdyamSetu
C. GeM
D. Bharat BillPay
Answer: A. M1xchange
Analytical Explanation: M1xchange completed the first invoice-discounting transaction backed by CGTMSE guarantee cover on the TReDS platform.
Q. 366. Where was the 26th SCO Summit held in 2026?
A. New Delhi
B. Bishkek
C. Beijing
D. Astana
Answer: B. Bishkek
Analytical Explanation: The 26th meeting of the Council of Heads of State of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation was held in Bishkek, Kyrgyz Republic.
Science & Technology
Total Questions: 77
Q. 367. Which major international technology event is scheduled in New Delhi from September 17–19, 2026?
A) India Mobile Congress
B) SEMICON India 2026
C) Digital India Expo
D) India AI Summit
Answer: B) SEMICON India 2026
Explanation: SEMICON India 2026 is scheduled in New Delhi from September 17–19. Prime Minister Narendra Modi is scheduled to inaugurate the event on September 17. (jagranjosh.com, pib.gov.in)
Q. 368. What emerging technology did UN Secretary-General António Guterres warn about on September 16, 2026?
A) Blockchain
B) Artificial intelligence
C) Quantum encryption
D) Biotechnology
Answer: B) Artificial intelligence
Explanation: Guterres warned that the rapid development of artificial intelligence creates risks that the world cannot afford to ignore and called for greater international cooperation. (reuters.com, reuters.com)
Q. 369. Which important Indian technology and semiconductor event is being inaugurated in New Delhi on September 17, 2026?
A) SEMICON India 2026
B) Bharat Drone Expo
C) India Cyber Expo
D) Digital Bharat Summit
Answer: A) SEMICON India 2026
Explanation: SEMICON India 2026 begins in New Delhi on September 17 and runs through September 19, focusing on India’s semiconductor ecosystem and related technologies. (jagranjosh.com, pib.gov.in)
Q. 370. Which major international technology event is scheduled in New Delhi from September 17–19, 2026?
A) India Mobile Congress
B) SEMICON India 2026
C) Digital India Expo
D) India AI Summit
Answer: B) SEMICON India 2026
Explanation: SEMICON India 2026 is scheduled in New Delhi from September 17–19. Prime Minister Narendra Modi is scheduled to inaugurate the event on September 17. (jagranjosh.com, pib.gov.in)
Q. 371. What emerging technology did UN Secretary-General António Guterres warn about on September 16, 2026?
A) Blockchain
B) Artificial intelligence
C) Quantum encryption
D) Biotechnology
Answer: B) Artificial intelligence
Explanation: Guterres warned that the rapid development of artificial intelligence creates risks that the world cannot afford to ignore and called for greater international cooperation. (reuters.com, reuters.com)
Q. 372. Which important Indian technology and semiconductor event is being inaugurated in New Delhi on September 17, 2026?
A) SEMICON India 2026
B) Bharat Drone Expo
C) India Cyber Expo
D) Digital Bharat Summit
Answer: A) SEMICON India 2026
Explanation: SEMICON India 2026 begins in New Delhi on September 17 and runs through September 19, focusing on India’s semiconductor ecosystem and related technologies. (jagranjosh.com, pib.gov.in)
Q. 373. Who inaugurated SEMICON India 2026 in New Delhi?
A. Amit Shah
B. Narendra Modi
C. Piyush Goyal
D. Ashwini Vaishnaw
Answer: B. Narendra Modi
Explanation: Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the fifth edition of SEMICON India 2026 at Yashobhoomi, New Delhi, on 17 September 2026. The event focuses on India’s growing semiconductor and electronics ecosystem.
Q. 374. Where is SEMICON India 2026 being held?
A. Pragati Maidan
B. Bharat Mandapam
C. Yashobhoomi
D. Vigyan Bhavan
Answer: C. Yashobhoomi
Explanation: SEMICON India 2026 is being held at Yashobhoomi, the India International Convention and Expo Centre in New Delhi.
Q. 375. What is the theme of SEMICON India 2026?
A. Digital India for All
B. Silicon to Systems: Building the Ecosystem
C. Make in India 2030
D. Chips for a New India
Answer: B. Silicon to Systems: Building the Ecosystem
Explanation: The theme highlights India’s ambition to develop a complete semiconductor ecosystem, covering manufacturing, design, packaging, research and related electronics capabilities.
Q. 376. SEMICON India 2026 is the country’s which edition of the event?
A. Third
B. Fourth
C. Fifth
D. Sixth
Answer: C. Fifth
Explanation: SEMICON India 2026 is the fifth edition of India’s major semiconductor and electronics exhibition.
Q. 377. For how many days is SEMICON India 2026 scheduled?
A. 2 days
B. 3 days
C. 4 days
D. 5 days
Answer: B. 3 days
Explanation: The event is scheduled from 17 to 19 September 2026.
Q. 378. Approximately how many exhibitors are expected at SEMICON India 2026?
A. 200
B. 400
C. More than 600
D. More than 1,000
Answer: C. More than 600
Explanation: The event brings together more than 600 exhibitors, including international companies and organisations involved in the semiconductor ecosystem.
Q. 379. What is one major objective of India’s semiconductor strategy?
A. Reduce digital payments
B. Build a domestic semiconductor ecosystem
C. Reduce electronics production
D. Stop foreign investment
Answer: B. Build a domestic semiconductor ecosystem
Explanation: India is promoting chip design, fabrication, packaging, equipment, materials, research and skilled talent to strengthen its semiconductor value chain.
Q. 380. Which event is particularly important for India’s semiconductor ambitions in September 2026?
A. World Economic Forum
B. SEMICON India 2026
C. COP31
D. G20 Tourism Summit
Answer: B. SEMICON India 2026
Explanation: SEMICON India 2026 brings together semiconductor companies, equipment manufacturers, investors and technology organisations.
Q. 381. Which technology is the main focus of SEMICON India 2026?
A. Semiconductor technology
B. Nuclear weapons
C. Marine biology
D. Space tourism
Answer: A. Semiconductor technology
Explanation: The event covers semiconductor manufacturing, chip design, packaging, materials, equipment and electronics.
Q. 382. What does AI stand for?
A. Automated Internet
B. Artificial Intelligence
C. Advanced Integration
D. Applied Information
Answer: B. Artificial Intelligence
Explanation: Artificial Intelligence refers to computer systems capable of performing tasks that normally require human-like intelligence.
Q. 383. Which index measures the gap between women and men across various dimensions?
A. Human Development Index
B. Global Gender Gap Index
C. Global Innovation Index
D. World Happiness Index
Answer: B. Global Gender Gap Index
Explanation: The World Economic Forum’s Global Gender Gap Index measures gender gaps rather than a country’s absolute level of development.
Q. 384. Which initiative uses women-led rural networks to promote pension awareness and enrolment?
A. Pension Sakhis
B. Digital Pension Mission
C. Rural Pension India
D. Pension Mitra 2.0
Answer: A. Pension Sakhis
Explanation: The Department of Rural Development and PFRDA signed an MoU to expand pension awareness and enrolment through a network of Pension Sakhis, leveraging the DAY-NRLM ecosystem.
Q. 385. Which organisation is responsible for conducting SEMICON India 2026 along with SEMI?
A) RBI
B) India Semiconductor Mission
C) NITI Aayog
D) ISRO
Answer: B) India Semiconductor Mission
Explanation: SEMICON India 2026 is jointly organised by the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) and SEMI. (SEMICON India)
Q. 386. Where is SEMICON India 2026 being held?
A) Pragati Maidan, Mumbai
B) Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
C) Yashobhoomi, New Delhi
D) HITEX, Hyderabad
Answer: C) Yashobhoomi, New Delhi
Explanation: SEMICON India 2026 is being held from 17–19 September 2026 at Yashobhoomi, New Delhi. (SEMICON India)
Q. 387. What is the theme of SEMICON India 2026?
A) Digital India for All
B) Silicon to Systems: Building the Ecosystem
C) Make in India: Electronics First
D) Chips for a New India
Answer: B) Silicon to Systems: Building the Ecosystem
Explanation: The official theme of SEMICON India 2026 is “Silicon to Systems: Building the Ecosystem.” (SEMICON India)
Q. 388. What is “Elias 2-24 b”?
A) A new satellite
B) An exoplanet
C) An asteroid
D) A comet
Answer: B) An exoplanet
Explanation: Elias 2-24 b is a young exoplanet identified using astronomical observations and archival data. (Insights IAS)
Q. 389. Approximately how old is Elias 2-24 b?
A) 10 million years
B) 5 million years
C) Less than 1 million years
D) 100 million years
Answer: C) Less than 1 million years
Explanation: Astronomers reported Elias 2-24 b as being less than one million years old, making it exceptionally young compared with most known planets. (Insights IAS)
Q. 390. Which technology was important in detecting Elias 2-24 b?
A) Sonar imaging
B) Coronagraphy
C) Radar mapping
D) Lidar
Answer: B) Coronagraphy
Explanation: High-contrast coronagraphy helped suppress the glare of the host star and reveal the faint planetary signal. (Insights IAS)
Q. 391. SEMICON India 2026 primarily focuses on which industry?
A) Automobile
B) Semiconductor and electronics
C) Pharmaceutical
D) Textile
Answer: B) Semiconductor and electronics
Explanation: SEMICON India brings together companies, researchers, policymakers and other stakeholders from the semiconductor and electronics ecosystem. (India Science and Technology)
Q. 392. Approximately how many exhibiting companies are participating in SEMICON India 2026?
A) 100+
B) 250+
C) 500+
D) 1,000+
Answer: C) 500+
Explanation: The 2026 edition features 500+ exhibiting companies from more than 20 countries. (NeGD)
Q. 393. Which organisation is India’s nodal mission for developing the semiconductor ecosystem?
A) India Semiconductor Mission
B) National Skill Development Mission
C) Digital India Mission
D) National Innovation Mission
Answer: A) India Semiconductor Mission
Explanation: The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) is central to India’s semiconductor ecosystem development and co-organises SEMICON India. (SEMICON India)
Q. 394. Which city hosted SEMICON India 2026?
A) Bengaluru
B) Hyderabad
C) New Delhi
D) Pune
Answer: C) New Delhi
Explanation: SEMICON India 2026 is being held at Yashobhoomi in New Delhi from September 17–19. (SEMICON India)
Q. 395. Which area is NOT one of the major focus areas listed for SEMICON India 2026?
A) Advanced materials
B) Semiconductor manufacturing
C) Talent and skilling
D) Deep-sea fishing
Answer: D) Deep-sea fishing
Explanation: SEMICON India covers semiconductor manufacturing, AI, supply chains, advanced materials, product design, startups, talent and sustainability—not deep-sea fishing. (India Science and Technology)
Q. 396. Which Indian institution recently featured in discussions on advances in quantum computing research?
A) Raman Research Institute
B) Archaeological Survey of India
C) National Dairy Research Institute
D) Indian Statistical Institute only
Answer: A) Raman Research Institute
Explanation: Researchers at Bengaluru’s Raman Research Institute have demonstrated work aimed at improving the stability of quantum states, relevant to quantum computing. (The Indian Express)
Q. 397. Which phenomenon is a major challenge for quantum computing?
A) Photosynthesis
B) Quantum decoherence
C) Evaporation
D) Radioactive decay only
Answer: B) Quantum decoherence
Explanation: Quantum systems are highly sensitive to their environment, and decoherence can cause quantum information to lose its useful quantum properties. (The Indian Express)
Q. 398. Which technology is designed to store electrical energy and release it when needed?
A) Solar PV
B) BESS
C) GPS
D) LiDAR
Answer: B) BESS
Explanation: Battery Energy Storage System (BESS) stores electricity in rechargeable batteries and releases it when required.
Q. 399. Which major technology-related issue is expected to receive attention at the current UN General Assembly?
A) Artificial Intelligence
B) 5G taxation
C) Cryptocurrency mining only
D) Quantum gaming
Answer: A) Artificial Intelligence
Explanation: AI governance and the establishment of common safeguards are among the issues highlighted for the UN discussions.
Q. 400. Which international organisation is currently discussing stronger global safeguards for artificial intelligence?
A) UNESCO only
B) United Nations
C) FIFA
D) WTO only
Answer: B) United Nations
Explanation: UN Secretary-General António Guterres has highlighted the need for common international safeguards or “guardrails” around AI development.
Q. 401. Where was SEMICON India 2026 held?
A) Pragati Maidan
B) Yashobhoomi, New Delhi
C) Bengaluru International Centre
D) Hyderabad HITEX
Answer: B) Yashobhoomi, New Delhi
Explanation: SEMICON India 2026 was held at Yashobhoomi in Dwarka, New Delhi, from 17–19 September. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 402. What was the theme of SEMICON India 2026?
A) Chip India
B) Silicon to Systems: Building the Ecosystem
C) Digital India 2030
D) Make Chips in India
Answer: B) Silicon to Systems: Building the Ecosystem
Explanation: The fifth edition of SEMICON India was organised under this theme. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 403. How many exhibitors participated in SEMICON India 2026?
A) More than 200
B) More than 400
C) More than 600
D) More than 1,000
Answer: C) More than 600
Explanation: The event featured more than 600 exhibitors, including around 300 international companies. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 404. How many countries were represented at SEMICON India 2026?
A) 32
B) 42
C) 52
D) 62
Answer: C) 52
Explanation: Representatives from 52 countries participated in the 2026 edition. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 405. What is the announced outlay of Semicon 2.0?
A) ₹50,000 crore
B) ₹75,000 crore
C) ₹1,00,000 crore
D) ₹1,27,500 crore
Answer: D) ₹1,27,500 crore
Explanation: Semicon 2.0 has an announced outlay of ₹1,27,500 crore, covering areas such as chip design, fabs, advanced packaging, research and talent. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 406. Which sector is at the centre of SEMICON India?
A) Automobile
B) Semiconductor
C) Tourism
D) Textiles
Answer: B) Semiconductor
Explanation: SEMICON India focuses on building India’s semiconductor ecosystem, including design, manufacturing, packaging, equipment, materials and talent. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 407. How many operational commercial semiconductor units were reported among the projects approved under Semicon 1.0?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Five
D) Six
Answer: C) Five
Explanation: PIB reported that commercial semiconductor production lines at CDIL Semiconductor, Mohali, and Suchi Semicon, Surat, took the number of operational commercial units among the 12 approved projects to five. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 408. Which technology is particularly important for India’s semiconductor self-reliance?
A) Semiconductor fabrication
B) Satellite television
C) Conventional broadcasting
D) Film production
Answer: A) Semiconductor fabrication
Explanation: Semiconductor fabrication and the wider chip ecosystem are strategic for technological resilience, electronics manufacturing and economic security. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 409. NEET-PG 2026 results were declared by which organisation?
A) UGC
B) NTA
C) NBEMS
D) AIIMS
Answer: C) NBEMS
Analytical Explanation: The National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences conducts major postgraduate medical examinations, including NEET-PG. (Jagran Josh)
Q. 410. Gujarat’s Farmer Registry is linked with Aadhaar and which other major record?
A) Passport records
B) Land records
C) Vehicle records
D) School records
Answer: B) Land records
Analytical Explanation: Linking farmer identity with verified land records helps create a more reliable digital agricultural database and can support targeted delivery of agricultural services. (GKToday)
Q. 411. Anthropic’s Claude AI was reported to have identified a previously unknown enzyme system associated with:
A) Bacteriophages
B) Mammals
C) Plants
D) Fungi
Answer: A) Bacteriophages
Analytical Explanation: The reported discovery involved array-associated reverse transcriptases (ART), illustrating how AI models are increasingly being applied to biological research. (GKToday)
Q. 412. Telangana has set a target of how much hyperscale data-centre capacity by 2029?
A) 1 GW
B) 2 GW
C) 5 GW
D) 10 GW
Answer: C) 5 GW
Analytical Explanation: Telangana’s target is linked to potential investment of around $30 billion, reflecting the increasing infrastructure requirements of AI and cloud computing. (GKToday)
Q. 413. In his final UNGA address, Guterres particularly called for international governance of:
A) Cryptocurrency
B) Artificial Intelligence
C) Tourism
D) Nuclear energy only
Answer: B) Artificial Intelligence
Analytical Explanation: Guterres called for stronger global oversight of AI risks and a multilateral AI risk-management framework with credible independent oversight. (Reuters)
Q. 414. At which international event did the Prime Minister address the global space community in September 2026?
A) International Space Summit in Paris
B) COP31
C) World Economic Forum
D) G20 Summit
Answer: A) International Space Summit in Paris
Analytical Explanation: The Prime Minister addressed the International Space Summit in Paris by video conference and emphasized safe, secure, peaceful and sustainable use of space. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 415. The United States and China recently agreed to establish a communication channel for incidents involving what technology?
A) Nuclear technology
B) Artificial intelligence/super intelligence
C) Blockchain
D) Quantum satellites
Answer: B) Artificial intelligence/super intelligence
Analytical Explanation: The two countries agreed to establish a bilateral communication channel for AI/super-intelligence incidents and created a dialogue to discuss associated risks and benefits. (Yonhap News)
Q. 416. The next US-China Super Intelligence dialogue was expected to take place by:
A) October 2026
B) November 2026
C) January 2027
D) March 2027
Answer: B) November 2026
Analytical Explanation: The White House fact sheet said the next exchange under the US-China Super Intelligence dialogue would occur by November 2026. (Yonhap News)
Q. 417. Which two leaders agreed to establish the bilateral AI incident communication channel?
A) Narendra Modi and Xi Jinping
B) Donald Trump and Xi Jinping
C) Emmanuel Macron and Xi Jinping
D) Donald Trump and Vladimir Putin
Answer: B) Donald Trump and Xi Jinping
Analytical Explanation: The agreement followed discussions between US President Donald Trump and Chinese President Xi Jinping. (Yonhap News)
Q. 418. What does AI stand for?
A) Automated Internet
B) Artificial Intelligence
C) Advanced Integration
D) Automated Information
Answer: B) Artificial Intelligence
Analytical Explanation: Artificial Intelligence refers to computational systems designed to perform tasks associated with human cognitive abilities, such as reasoning, learning and pattern recognition.
Q. 419. The India International Water Week 2026 focused particularly on which major global challenge?
A) Climate change and water security
B) Space debris
C) Artificial intelligence
D) Global taxation
Answer: A) Climate change and water security
Analytical Explanation: The event’s theme, Climate Resilient Water Management, reflects the need to manage water resources under growing climate and environmental pressures. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 420. World Tourism Day is observed every year on:
A) 21 September
B) 23 September
C) 27 September
D) 30 September
Answer: C) 27 September
Analytical Explanation: World Tourism Day is observed annually on 27 September. The 2026 observance is associated with the theme “Digital Agenda and Artificial Intelligence to Redesign Tourism”, with El Salvador as host. (ExamAtlas)
Q. 421. Which organisation launched the Digital Connectivity Rating (DCR) platform?
A) TRAI
B) RBI
C) SEBI
D) ISRO
Answer: A) TRAI
Analytical Explanation: The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India launched the DCR platform as a pilot initiative to assess, certify and display indoor network and digital-connectivity quality of properties. (Shankar IAS Parliament)
Q. 422. What is the theme of World Tourism Day 2026?
A) Tourism for Peace
B) Digital Agenda and Artificial Intelligence to Redesign Tourism
C) Tourism and Climate Change
D) Sustainable Travel for All
Answer: B) Digital Agenda and Artificial Intelligence to Redesign Tourism
Analytical Explanation: The 2026 theme focuses on how digital technologies and artificial intelligence can transform tourism, from travel planning to destination management. (Shankar IAS Parliament)
Q. 423. How many indicators are tracked by the India Electric Mobility Index 2025?
A) 10
B) 12
C) 16
D) 20
Answer: C) 16
Analytical Explanation: The index tracks 16 performance indicators grouped under three broad themes: transport electrification, charging infrastructure and EV research and innovation. (The Indian Express)
Q. 424. What percentage weight is given to Transport Electrification Progress in the India Electric Mobility Index?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%
Answer: D) 50%
Analytical Explanation: Transport Electrification Progress carries the highest weight at 50%, followed by Charging Infrastructure Readiness at 30% and EV Research & Innovation at 20%. (The Indian Express)
Q. 425. The India Electric Mobility Index was developed by NITI Aayog in collaboration with:
A) WRI India
B) ISRO
C) NABARD
D) NASSCOM
Answer: A) WRI India
Analytical Explanation: NITI Aayog developed the index in collaboration with WRI India to provide comparative analysis of electric-mobility development across India’s states and Union Territories. (The Indian Express)
Q. 426. India and which organisation renewed their space cooperation agreement until 2032?
A) NASA
B) ESA
C) JAXA
D) Roscosmos
Answer: B) ESA
Analytical Explanation: ISRO and the European Space Agency renewed their cooperation agreement until 2032, including collaboration in areas such as space weather and robotic space exploration. (The Indian Express)
Q. 427. The fifth edition of SEMICON India 2026 was held in which city?
A) Bengaluru
B) Hyderabad
C) Mumbai
D) New Delhi
Answer: D) New Delhi
Analytical Explanation: SEMICON India 2026 was held in New Delhi from 17–19 September under the theme “Silicon to Systems: Building the Ecosystem.” (The Indian Express)
Q. 428. What was the theme of SEMICON India 2026?
A) Chips for a Digital India
B) Silicon to Systems: Building the Ecosystem
C) Semiconductor India: Future Ready
D) Designing India’s Digital Future
Answer: B) Silicon to Systems: Building the Ecosystem
Analytical Explanation: The theme emphasised building a complete semiconductor ecosystem involving chip design, materials, equipment, fabrication, packaging and electronics systems. (The Indian Express)
Q. 429. What was the announced outlay for Semicon 2.0?
A) ₹50,000 crore
B) ₹75,000 crore
C) ₹1,00,000 crore
D) ₹1,27,500 crore
Answer: D) ₹1,27,500 crore
Analytical Explanation: Semicon 2.0 was outlined with an outlay of ₹1,27,500 crore and focuses on expanding India’s semiconductor ecosystem. (The Indian Express)
Q. 430. Which institute’s scientists identified the Australe Basin?
A) Physical Research Laboratory
B) Indian Institute of Science
C) BARC
D) IIT Bombay
Answer: A) Physical Research Laboratory
Analytical Explanation: Researchers from the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL), Ahmedabad, identified the ancient lunar basin using mineralogical evidence. (The Indian Express)
Q. 431. CSIR was founded in which year?
A) 1935
B) 1940
C) 1942
D) 1947
Answer: C) 1942
Analytical Explanation: CSIR was established on 26 September 1942 and has grown into a major network of scientific research laboratories across India. (Shankar IAS Parliament)
Q. 432. Which Indian startup plans to launch what it describes as India’s first orbital computing satellite?
A) Skyroot Aerospace
B) Agnikul Cosmos
C) TakeMe2Space
D) Pixxel
Answer: C) TakeMe2Space
Explanation: Bengaluru/India-based space startup TakeMe2Space plans to launch its MOI-1A orbital computing satellite aboard a SpaceX rideshare mission. (Reuters)
Q. 433. What is the name of the orbital computing satellite planned by TakeMe2Space?
A) MOI-1A
B) GSAT-25
C) EOS-10
D) RISAT-4
Answer: A) MOI-1A
Explanation: The MOI-1A spacecraft is designed to perform computing and AI processing in orbit rather than sending all raw data back to Earth. (The Indian Express)
Q. 434. MOI-1A is scheduled to fly aboard which SpaceX mission?
A) Starlink-20
B) Transporter-18
C) Crew-12
D) Artemis-3
Answer: B) Transporter-18
Explanation: MOI-1A is scheduled to fly on SpaceX’s Transporter-18 rideshare mission. (The Indian Express)
Q. 435. Which processors will be carried by the MOI-1A satellite?
A) Google TPU v5
B) Nvidia Orin NX
C) Intel Xeon
D) AMD EPYC
Answer: B) Nvidia Orin NX
Explanation: The sub-50-kg spacecraft is planned to carry Nvidia Orin NX edge-computing processors for AI processing in orbit.
Q. 436. What is the name of India’s new semiconductor programme notified in September 2026?
A. Chip India Mission
B. Semicon 2.0
C. India ChipNet
D. Silicon Bharat Programme
Answer: B. Semicon 2.0
Analytical Explanation: Semicon 2.0, also referred to as ISM 2.0, focuses on strengthening India’s semiconductor ecosystem, including fabs, packaging, chip design and related capabilities.
Q. 437. The approximate financial outlay of Semicon 2.0 is:
A. ₹25,000 crore
B. ₹50,000 crore
C. ₹1 lakh crore
D. ₹1.27–1.28 lakh crore
Answer: D. ₹1.27–1.28 lakh crore
Analytical Explanation: The programme has a very large financial outlay aimed at building domestic semiconductor manufacturing and supporting infrastructure.
Q. 438. Which ministry is the nodal ministry for Semicon 2.0?
A. Ministry of Heavy Industries
B. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
C. Ministry of Finance
D. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Answer: B. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Analytical Explanation: MeitY is the nodal ministry responsible for India’s semiconductor-development initiatives.
Q. 439. What is the term used for the sharp increase in semiconductor prices driven partly by demand for AI-related chips?
A. Chipflation
B. Techflation
C. Silicon shock
D. AI inflation
Answer: A. Chipflation
Analytical Explanation: “Chipflation” describes rising semiconductor prices associated with strong demand, including demand for high-bandwidth memory and AI accelerator hardware.
Q. 440. Which rocket was scheduled to carry EOS-05?
A. PSLV-C60
B. SSLV-D4
C. GSLV-F17
D. LVM3-M7
Answer: C. GSLV-F17
Analytical Explanation: The mission was scheduled to use the GSLV-F17 launch vehicle from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre at Sriharikota.
Q. 441. Which institution developed the Chitra Core coronary stent?
A. SCTIMST
B. IISc Bengaluru
C. BARC
D. CSIR-IGIB
Answer: A. SCTIMST
Analytical Explanation: Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Sciences and Technology developed the indigenous cardiovascular device, highlighting India’s growing medical-device research capabilities.
Q. 442. Project Suncatcher is associated with research into:
A. Ocean mapping
B. Space-based AI computing
C. Lunar mining
D. Asteroid deflection
Answer: B. Space-based AI computing
Analytical Explanation: Project Suncatcher explores the feasibility of using satellite infrastructure for AI computing in orbit.
Q. 443. Which Indian research institution was reported to have developed an AI dataset using satellite data to monitor crops and predict agricultural yields?
A. IIT Delhi
B. IIIT-Delhi
C. IIT Bombay
D. IISER Pune
Answer: B. IIIT-Delhi
Analytical Explanation: Researchers at IIIT-Delhi were reported to be using satellite-derived information and AI techniques for agricultural monitoring and yield prediction.
Environment & Agriculture
Total Questions: 67
Q. 444. Which ministry launched the Mangrove GIS Portal in Gujarat?
A. Ministry of Agriculture
B. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
C. Ministry of Science and Technology
D. Ministry of Earth Sciences
Answer: B. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Explanation: Union Minister Bhupender Yadav launched the Mangrove GIS Portal during a mangrove-conservation workshop in Bhuj, Kachchh, Gujarat.
Q. 445. What is the main purpose of the Mangrove GIS Portal?
A. Railway mapping
B. Mangrove conservation and habitat monitoring
C. Crop insurance
D. Tourism promotion
Answer: B. Mangrove conservation and habitat monitoring
Explanation: The portal supports science-based mangrove conservation, habitat monitoring, conservation planning and technology-driven restoration management.
Q. 446. Which state is associated with the Guneri Inland Mangroves mentioned in recent current affairs?
A. Gujarat
B. Odisha
C. Kerala
D. West Bengal
Answer: A. Gujarat
Explanation: Guneri Inland Mangroves in Kachchh are associated with Gujarat and were recognised as the state’s first Biodiversity Heritage Site in January 2025.
Q. 447. How many one-horned rhinoceroses were recorded in Assam as of September 2026?
A. 2,260
B. 3,260
C. 4,260
D. 5,260
Answer: B. 3,260
Explanation: Assam recorded 3,260 greater one-horned rhinoceroses as of September 2026, representing about 80% of the global population.
Q. 448. Approximately what share of the global greater one-horned rhinoceros population was recorded in Assam?
A. 40%
B. 60%
C. 80%
D. 95%
Answer: C. 80%
Explanation: The September 2026 figure for Assam was reported as about 80% of the global greater one-horned rhinoceros population.
Q. 449. Which two new-to-science amphibian species were recorded in Mizoram?
A. Duttaphrynus phawngpui and Ingerana aizawl
B. Rana indica and Bufo assamensis
C. Ichthyophis mizoramensis and Rana khasi
D. Microhyla mizoramensis and Bufo indica
Answer: A. Duttaphrynus phawngpui and Ingerana aizawl
Explanation: Two new-to-science amphibian species, Duttaphrynus phawngpui and Ingerana aizawl, were reported from Mizoram.
Q. 450. What is ‘Gegeneophis chandgadi’?
A. A bird
B. A fish
C. A subterranean amphibian
D. A reptile
Answer: C. A subterranean amphibian
Explanation: Gegeneophis chandgadi is a newly described legless, subterranean amphibian discovered in Maharashtra’s Northern Western Ghats.
Q. 451. In which state was Gegeneophis chandgadi discovered?
A. Kerala
B. Maharashtra
C. Karnataka
D. Goa
Answer: B. Maharashtra
Explanation: The species was discovered at Buzawade in Chandgad, Kolhapur district, Maharashtra.
Q. 452. What type of amphibian is a caecilian?
A. Winged amphibian
B. Worm-like legless amphibian
C. Aquatic frog
D. Tree-dwelling lizard
Answer: B. Worm-like legless amphibian
Explanation: Caecilians are worm-like, legless amphibians adapted largely to underground life.
Q. 453. Which organisation launched India’s Net Zero Portal and NAPCC Dashboard on 16 September 2026?
A. Ministry of Finance
B. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
C. Ministry of Power
D. NITI Aayog
Answer: B. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Explanation: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change launched the India Net Zero Portal and the National Action Plan on Climate Change Dashboard on 16 September 2026.
Q. 454. What is the proposed hydropower capacity of the Kishau Multipurpose Project?
A) 220 MW
B) 422 MW
C) 750 MW
D) 1,000 MW
Answer: B) 422 MW
Explanation: The project has been described as a 422 MW multipurpose project. Its broader objectives include hydropower generation, irrigation and water supply. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 455. CYBER KUSHTI 2026 primarily focuses on which areas?
A) Agriculture and irrigation
B) Cybersecurity and artificial intelligence
C) Space exploration
D) Renewable energy
Answer: B) Cybersecurity and artificial intelligence
Explanation: The hackathon is designed to test human judgment in cybersecurity assessment, with AI forming an important component. (pib.gov.in)
Q. 456. India is the world’s second-largest producer of which crop?
A) Rice
B) Sugarcane
C) Wheat
D) Cotton
Answer: B) Sugarcane
Explanation: According to a PIB backgrounder, India is the world’s second-largest sugarcane producer. (pib.gov.in)
Q. 457. Approximately what percentage of India’s ethanol in 2025–26 came from grains?
A) One-fourth
B) One-half
C) Nearly three-fourths
D) Nearly all
Answer: C) Nearly three-fourths
Explanation: Nearly three-fourths of India’s ethanol production was reported to come from grains, particularly maize, in 2025–26. (pib.gov.in)
Q. 458. Which organisation reported that the Antarctic ozone hole had reached about 25 million square kilometres on September 12, 2026?
A) NASA
B) ISRO
C) Copernicus Atmosphere Monitoring Service
D) UNEP
Answer: C) Copernicus Atmosphere Monitoring Service
Explanation: CAMS reported that the Antarctic ozone hole expanded sharply in September 2026, reaching about 25 million sq. km on September 12. (khanglobalstudies.com)
Q. 459. The Kishau Multipurpose Project is primarily associated with which river basin?
A) Godavari
B) Yamuna
C) Narmada
D) Krishna
Answer: B) Yamuna
Explanation: Kishau is one of the major storage projects planned in the upper Yamuna basin. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 460. Which Indian government body issued a September 16, 2026 release about easing the RCMC requirement for certain export consignments?
A) Ministry of Commerce & Industry
B) Ministry of Defence
C) Ministry of Agriculture
D) Ministry of Finance
Answer: A) Ministry of Commerce & Industry
Explanation: The Ministry of Commerce & Industry announced that the government had eased the RCMC requirement for export consignments up to ₹3 lakh. (pib.gov.in)
Q. 461. What is the proposed hydropower capacity of the Kishau Multipurpose Project?
A) 220 MW
B) 422 MW
C) 750 MW
D) 1,000 MW
Answer: B) 422 MW
Explanation: The project has been described as a 422 MW multipurpose project. Its broader objectives include hydropower generation, irrigation and water supply. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 462. CYBER KUSHTI 2026 primarily focuses on which areas?
A) Agriculture and irrigation
B) Cybersecurity and artificial intelligence
C) Space exploration
D) Renewable energy
Answer: B) Cybersecurity and artificial intelligence
Explanation: The hackathon is designed to test human judgment in cybersecurity assessment, with AI forming an important component. (pib.gov.in)
Q. 463. India is the world’s second-largest producer of which crop?
A) Rice
B) Sugarcane
C) Wheat
D) Cotton
Answer: B) Sugarcane
Explanation: According to a PIB backgrounder, India is the world’s second-largest sugarcane producer. (pib.gov.in)
Q. 464. Approximately what percentage of India’s ethanol in 2025–26 came from grains?
A) One-fourth
B) One-half
C) Nearly three-fourths
D) Nearly all
Answer: C) Nearly three-fourths
Explanation: Nearly three-fourths of India’s ethanol production was reported to come from grains, particularly maize, in 2025–26. (pib.gov.in)
Q. 465. Which organisation reported that the Antarctic ozone hole had reached about 25 million square kilometres on September 12, 2026?
A) NASA
B) ISRO
C) Copernicus Atmosphere Monitoring Service
D) UNEP
Answer: C) Copernicus Atmosphere Monitoring Service
Explanation: CAMS reported that the Antarctic ozone hole expanded sharply in September 2026, reaching about 25 million sq. km on September 12. (khanglobalstudies.com)
Q. 466. The Kishau Multipurpose Project is primarily associated with which river basin?
A) Godavari
B) Yamuna
C) Narmada
D) Krishna
Answer: B) Yamuna
Explanation: Kishau is one of the major storage projects planned in the upper Yamuna basin. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 467. Which Indian government body issued a September 16, 2026 release about easing the RCMC requirement for certain export consignments?
A) Ministry of Commerce & Industry
B) Ministry of Defence
C) Ministry of Agriculture
D) Ministry of Finance
Answer: A) Ministry of Commerce & Industry
Explanation: The Ministry of Commerce & Industry announced that the government had eased the RCMC requirement for export consignments up to ₹3 lakh. (pib.gov.in)
Q. 468. Which sector is at the centre of SEMICON India 2026?
A. Textile
B. Semiconductor and electronics
C. Tourism
D. Agriculture
Answer: B. Semiconductor and electronics
Explanation: SEMICON India focuses on semiconductor manufacturing, chip design, equipment, materials, packaging, electronics and related technologies.
Q. 469. Which portal was launched for mangrove conservation and management in Gujarat?
A. Green Gujarat Portal
B. MGIS Portal
C. Coastal India Portal
D. Mangrove India Mission Portal
Answer: B. MGIS Portal
Explanation: The Mangrove Geographic Information System (MGIS) Portal was launched to support mangrove conservation, restoration and sustainable management.
Q. 470. Which organisation participated in the development and promotion of dryland agriculture cooperation highlighted at the 2026 Dryland Congress?
A. ICRISAT
B. ISRO
C. DRDO
D. RBI
Answer: A. ICRISAT
Explanation: The Dryland Congress 2026 was jointly organised by ICAR and ICRISAT and focused on South–South cooperation in dryland agriculture.
Q. 471. What declaration emerged from the Dryland Congress 2026?
A. Mumbai Declaration
B. Delhi Declaration on Drylands
C. Jaipur Agricultural Declaration
D. Hyderabad Declaration
Answer: B. Delhi Declaration on Drylands
Explanation: The Congress concluded with the Delhi Declaration on Drylands, emphasising cooperation in sustainable dryland agriculture.
Q. 472. India’s first farm-level soil-carbon payments were recently made to farmers in which states?
A) Punjab and Haryana
B) Bihar and Jharkhand
C) Gujarat and Rajasthan
D) Maharashtra and Karnataka
Answer: A) Punjab and Haryana
Explanation: More than 2,550 farmers in Punjab and Haryana received India’s first farm-level soil-carbon payments through direct benefit transfers. (Insights IAS)
Q. 473. The soil-carbon payments were linked primarily to which type of farming?
A) Regenerative farming
B) Hydroponic farming
C) Terrace farming
D) Organic tea farming
Answer: A) Regenerative farming
Explanation: The payments rewarded verified regenerative and climate-smart agricultural practices that increase soil carbon and reduce greenhouse-gas emissions. (Insights IAS)
Q. 474. Which organisation’s Aadi programme was involved in the soil-carbon payment initiative?
A) NABARD
B) Grow Indigo
C) FCI
D) ICAR
Answer: B) Grow Indigo
Explanation: The initiative was implemented by Grow Indigo through its farmer-carbon programme called Aadi. (Insights IAS)
Q. 475. Which international organisation released the report “Forests for Food: Nourishing People, Sustaining the Planet”?
A) UNESCO
B) FAO
C) UNEP
D) UNDP
Answer: B) FAO
Explanation: The report was published by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) in collaboration with the Landscape Alliance/CIFOR-ICRAF. (Insights IAS)
Q. 476. According to the recent FAO report, approximately how many people depend to some extent on forests for their livelihoods?
A) 1 billion
B) 2 billion
C) 3 billion
D) More than 5 billion
Answer: D) More than 5 billion
Explanation: The report highlights that more than 5 billion people depend to some extent on forests for their livelihoods. (Insights IAS)
Q. 477. The Himalayan Monal is the state bird of which state?
A) Uttarakhand
B) Odisha
C) Assam
D) Gujarat
Answer: A) Uttarakhand
Explanation: The Himalayan Monal is the state bird of Uttarakhand and is associated with the Himalayan ecosystem. (The Indian Express)
Q. 478. What is the IUCN conservation status of the Himalayan Monal?
A) Critically Endangered
B) Endangered
C) Vulnerable
D) Least Concern
Answer: D) Least Concern
Explanation: The Himalayan Monal is currently categorised as Least Concern on the IUCN Red List. (The Indian Express)
Q. 479. Black carbon is best described as a:
A) Long-lived greenhouse gas
B) Short-lived climate pollutant
C) Noble gas
D) Primary atmospheric oxygen source
Answer: B) Short-lived climate pollutant
Explanation: Black carbon is a short-lived climate pollutant produced mainly through incomplete combustion and has strong warming effects.
Q. 480. Black carbon primarily warms the atmosphere because it:
A) Absorbs solar radiation
B) Reflects all radiation
C) Produces oxygen
D) Absorbs nitrogen
Answer: A) Absorbs solar radiation
Explanation: Black carbon strongly absorbs sunlight, contributing to atmospheric warming and changes in snow and ice albedo.
Q. 481. The southwest monsoon’s withdrawal in 2026 first began from which region?
A) Kerala
B) West Rajasthan
C) Odisha
D) Assam
Answer: B) West Rajasthan
Explanation: The India Meteorological Department reported that southwest monsoon withdrawal had begun from west Rajasthan.
Q. 482. Approximately what percentage of India’s geographical area remained rain-deficient according to the latest report?
A) 23%
B) 33%
C) 43%
D) 53%
Answer: C) 43%
Explanation: Around 43% of India’s geographical area was reported to remain rain-deficient.
Q. 483. As of September 19, 2026, India’s cumulative rainfall was approximately how much below normal?
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 25%
Answer: C) 15%
Explanation: The reported cumulative nationwide rainfall was around 15% below normal as of September 19.
Q. 484. Which Indian institution recently launched an NGT mobile application?
A) Supreme Court
B) National Green Tribunal
C) Election Commission
D) NITI Aayog
Answer: B) National Green Tribunal
Explanation: The National Green Tribunal’s mobile application was released during the International Conference on The Future of Environment and Climate Dynamics.
Q. 485. What was the theme of the international conference associated with the NGT mobile application?
A) Future of Environment and Climate Dynamics
B) Digital India 2047
C) Green Banking Revolution
D) Global Water Security
Answer: A) Future of Environment and Climate Dynamics
Explanation: The conference focused on The Future of Environment and Climate Dynamics.
Q. 486. What is the theme of India International Water Week 2026?
A) Water for All
B) Clean Rivers, Clean India
C) Climate Resilient Water Management
D) Water and Rural Development
Answer: C) Climate Resilient Water Management
Explanation: The five-day event is being held from 22–26 September 2026 with the theme “Climate Resilient Water Management.” (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 487. Which ministry organises India International Water Week?
A) Ministry of Environment
B) Ministry of Jal Shakti
C) Ministry of Agriculture
D) Ministry of Rural Development
Answer: B) Ministry of Jal Shakti
Explanation: The event is organised by the Ministry of Jal Shakti and focuses on sustainable and climate-resilient water management. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 488. Which factor was cited as influencing the Indian rupee recently?
A) Oil prices
B) Gold imports only
C) Monsoon rainfall only
D) Tourism receipts only
Answer: A) Oil prices
Explanation: Oil-price movements and RBI intervention were among the factors affecting recent rupee trading. (Reuters)
Q. 489. World Rhino Day is observed on which date?
A) 20 September
B) 21 September
C) 22 September
D) 23 September
Answer: C) 22 September
Explanation: World Rhino Day is observed annually on 22 September to raise awareness about rhinoceros conservation. The Prime Minister’s Office highlighted the occasion on 22 September 2026. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 490. The Cauvery Water Management Authority recently dealt with water release involving Karnataka and which state?
A) Kerala
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Telangana
Answer: C) Tamil Nadu
Analytical Explanation: The Cauvery dispute involves water-sharing between basin states. The current issue concerns the implementation of the established water-sharing mechanism. (Topper IAS)
Q. 491. Maruti Suzuki commissioned its first green-hydrogen plant at:
A) Pune
B) Manesar
C) Chennai
D) Sanand
Answer: B) Manesar
Analytical Explanation: The facility in Haryana represents the automotive industry’s increasing interest in hydrogen and low-carbon industrial energy. (GKToday)
Q. 492. The newly described Begonia species Begonia neelamorum is associated with which community?
A) Nyishi
B) Toda
C) Bhil
D) Khasi
Answer: A) Nyishi
Analytical Explanation: The species name recognises the Neelam clan of the Nyishi community, linking biodiversity documentation with local cultural knowledge. (Topper IAS)
Q. 493. World Rhino Day is observed on:
A) September 20
B) September 21
C) September 22
D) September 23
Answer: C) September 22
Analytical Explanation: World Rhino Day raises awareness about rhinoceros conservation and the threats faced by different rhino species.
Q. 494. How many living rhinoceros species are generally recognised?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Five
D) Six
Answer: C) Five
Analytical Explanation: The five living species are the greater one-horned, Javan, Sumatran, black and white rhinoceroses. (Topper IAS)
Q. 495. The 9th India International Water Week 2026 focuses on:
A) Ocean Mining
B) Climate Resilient Water
C) River Tourism
D) Coastal Security
Answer: B) Climate Resilient Water
Analytical Explanation: The event focuses on water management in the context of climate change and resilience. It is being held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi. (Utkarsh)
Q. 496. Which factor was highlighted as an important consideration for Indian financial markets in recent reports?
A) Portfolio flows
B) Monsoon holidays
C) Gold imports only
D) Tourism receipts only
Answer: A) Portfolio flows
Analytical Explanation: Recent market commentary has focused on portfolio flows, oil prices and liquidity conditions as factors affecting the rupee and Indian financial markets. (Reuters)
Q. 497. A dilution refrigerator is especially important for which field?
A) Quantum technology
B) Conventional agriculture
C) Road construction
D) Textile manufacturing
Answer: A) Quantum technology
Analytical Explanation: Dilution refrigerators produce extremely low temperatures required by many quantum systems and experiments. DRDO’s project targets 20 mK for quantum applications. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 498. The 9th India International Water Week 2026 was organised under which ministry?
A) Ministry of Environment
B) Ministry of Agriculture
C) Ministry of Jal Shakti
D) Ministry of Rural Development
Answer: C) Ministry of Jal Shakti
Analytical Explanation: The event was organised by the Ministry of Jal Shakti from 22–26 September 2026. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 499. What was the theme of India International Water Week 2026?
A) Water for Sustainable Agriculture
B) Climate Resilient Water Management
C) Clean Rivers, Clean India
D) Water Security for All
Answer: B) Climate Resilient Water Management
Analytical Explanation: The ninth edition focused on “Climate Resilient Water Management”, highlighting the growing importance of sustainable water management amid climate-related challenges. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 500. At the UN, S. Jaishankar highlighted the importance of AI in which area?
A) Maritime security
B) Agriculture only
C) Tourism only
D) Space tourism
Answer: A) Maritime security
Analytical Explanation: Jaishankar discussed both AI and maritime security, including AI applications in maritime-domain awareness, search and rescue, disaster response and infrastructure resilience. (Akashvani News)
Q. 501. The 9th India International Water Week 2026 was organised under which ministry?
A) Ministry of Agriculture
B) Ministry of Environment
C) Ministry of Jal Shakti
D) Ministry of Rural Development
Answer: C) Ministry of Jal Shakti
Analytical Explanation: The 9th India International Water Week was organised by the Ministry of Jal Shakti during 22–26 September 2026, focusing on water-related challenges and solutions. (MCQ Questions)
Q. 502. Which state is associated with the Himalayan Monal as its state bird?
A) Himachal Pradesh
B) Uttarakhand
C) Sikkim
D) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: B) Uttarakhand
Analytical Explanation: The Himalayan Monal is the state bird of Uttarakhand and occurs across several parts of the Himalayan region. (The Indian Express)
Q. 503. The Himalayan Monal is currently classified under which IUCN category?
A) Critically Endangered
B) Endangered
C) Vulnerable
D) Least Concern
Answer: D) Least Concern
Analytical Explanation: The Himalayan Monal is listed as Least Concern on the IUCN Red List, although researchers have highlighted threats such as climate change and increasing human-generated noise. (The Indian Express)
Q. 504. Black carbon is commonly known as:
A) Green gas
B) Soot
C) Methane
D) Ozone
Answer: B) Soot
Analytical Explanation: Black carbon is commonly called soot and is produced mainly through incomplete combustion of fuels and biomass. It absorbs sunlight strongly and can contribute to atmospheric warming and snow/ice melt. (The Indian Express)
Q. 505. Black carbon is primarily produced by:
A) Complete combustion
B) Incomplete combustion
C) Photosynthesis
D) Evaporation
Answer: B) Incomplete combustion
Analytical Explanation: Black carbon is generated when carbon-containing fuels such as wood, fossil fuels or waste burn incompletely. (The Indian Express)
Q. 506. Which bird has been highlighted in recent research concerning climate change and human-generated noise in the Himalayas?
A) Great Indian Bustard
B) Himalayan Monal
C) Sarus Crane
D) Hornbill
Answer: B) Himalayan Monal
Analytical Explanation: Recent research has examined how climate change may affect Himalayan Monal habitat and how increasing tourism and traffic noise may influence its calls. (The Indian Express)
Q. 507. The National Conference on Agriculture for Rabi Campaign 2026 was held on:
A) September 25–26
B) September 26–27
C) September 28–29
D) September 29–30
Answer: C) September 28–29
Explanation: The two-day conference brought together State Agriculture Ministers, officials, ICAR and other stakeholders to discuss preparedness for the upcoming Rabi season. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 508. The National Conference on Agriculture for Rabi Campaign 2026 was organized by which ministry?
A) Ministry of Rural Development
B) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare
C) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
D) Ministry of Cooperation
Answer: B) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare
Explanation: The conference was organized by the Department of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 509. Which body is India’s statutory multi-disciplinary agency for combating organized wildlife crime?
A) NTCA
B) WCCB
C) NGT
D) CPCB
Answer: B) WCCB
Explanation: The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) works under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to combat organized wildlife crime. (The Indian Express)
Q. 510. What is the main purpose of Earth-observation satellites?
A. Conduct underwater mining
B. Observe and collect information about Earth’s surface and atmosphere
C. Manufacture semiconductors
D. Provide nuclear energy
Answer: B. Observe and collect information about Earth’s surface and atmosphere
Analytical Explanation: Earth-observation satellites provide data useful for agriculture, weather, disaster management, environmental monitoring and resource mapping.
Sports
Total Questions: 96
Q. 511. Who won the men’s singles title at the 2026 US Open?
A. Ben Shelton
B. Alexander Zverev
C. Novak Djokovic
D. Carlos Alcaraz
Answer: B. Alexander Zverev
Explanation: Germany’s Alexander Zverev defeated Ben Shelton in the men’s final to win the 2026 US Open singles title.
Q. 512. Who won the women’s singles title at the 2026 US Open?
A. Aryna Sabalenka
B. Elena Rybakina
C. Iga Świątek
D. Coco Gauff
Answer: B. Elena Rybakina
Explanation: Elena Rybakina of Kazakhstan defeated two-time defending champion Aryna Sabalenka in the women’s final.
Q. 513. Which country does Alexander Zverev represent?
A. Austria
B. Germany
C. Switzerland
D. France
Answer: B. Germany
Explanation: Alexander Zverev is a German professional tennis player and won the 2026 US Open men’s singles title.
Q. 514. Which country does Elena Rybakina represent?
A. Russia
B. Kazakhstan
C. Ukraine
D. Belarus
Answer: B. Kazakhstan
Explanation: Elena Rybakina represents Kazakhstan and won the 2026 US Open women’s singles title.
Q. 515. Who became the first Indian male recurve archer to win the Archery World Cup Final men’s individual title?
A. Atanu Das
B. Dhiraj Bommadevara
C. Tarundeep Rai
D. Abhishek Verma
Answer: B. Dhiraj Bommadevara
Explanation: Dhiraj Bommadevara won the men’s individual recurve title at the 2026 Archery World Cup Final in Saltillo, Mexico.
Q. 516. In which country was the 2026 Archery World Cup Final held?
A. India
B. Mexico
C. Japan
D. France
Answer: B. Mexico
Explanation: The season-ending Archery World Cup Final was held in Saltillo, Mexico.
Q. 517. Who did Dhiraj Bommadevara defeat in the Archery World Cup Final?
A. Junya Nakanishi
B. Kim Woo-jin
C. Brady Ellison
D. Mete Gazoz
Answer: A. Junya Nakanishi
Explanation: Bommadevara defeated Japan’s Junya Nakanishi 6–5 and won the shoot-off 10–9.
Q. 518. How many medals did India win across the four stages of the 2026 Archery World Cup?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 9
Answer: C. 7
Explanation: India won seven medals across the four 2026 Archery World Cup stages: four gold, one silver and two bronze.
Q. 519. Which cities were appointed to host future UEFA Champions League finals at a September 2026 meeting?
A. London and Paris
B. Munich and Barcelona
C. Madrid and Rome
D. Berlin and Lisbon
Answer: B. Munich and Barcelona
Explanation: The UEFA Executive Committee appointed Munich and Barcelona as host cities for future UEFA Champions League finals at its 15 September 2026 meeting in Thessaloniki, Greece.
Q. 520. Which Indian cricketer joined Nottinghamshire for the 2026 County Championship season?
A) Mukesh Kumar
B) Mohammed Siraj
C) Arshdeep Singh
D) Kuldeep Yadav
Answer: A) Mukesh Kumar
Explanation: Indian pacer Mukesh Kumar joined Nottinghamshire for the 2026 County Championship season. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 521. Which Indian cricketer joined Nottinghamshire for the 2026 County Championship season?
A) Mukesh Kumar
B) Mohammed Siraj
C) Arshdeep Singh
D) Kuldeep Yadav
Answer: A) Mukesh Kumar
Explanation: Indian pacer Mukesh Kumar joined Nottinghamshire for the 2026 County Championship season. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 522. How many athletes are expected to represent India at the 2026 Asian Games?
A. 403
B. 453
C. 503
D. 603
Answer: C. 503
Explanation: India’s sports authorities approved a 503-member athlete contingent for the 2026 Asian Games.
Q. 523. Where will the 2026 Asian Games be held?
A. Seoul, South Korea
B. Aichi-Nagoya, Japan
C. Beijing, China
D. Jakarta, Indonesia
Answer: B. Aichi-Nagoya, Japan
Explanation: The 2026 Asian Games are being hosted in Japan’s Aichi Prefecture and Nagoya.
Q. 524. When are the 2026 Asian Games scheduled to conclude?
A. September 25
B. September 30
C. October 4
D. October 10
Answer: C. October 4
Explanation: The Aichi-Nagoya Asian Games are scheduled to run through 4 October 2026.
Q. 525. Which Indian sport has significant attention at the 2026 Asian Games?
A. Cricket
B. Baseball
C. Ice hockey
D. Rugby only
Answer: A. Cricket
Explanation: Both Indian men’s and women’s cricket teams are participating in the Asian Games.
Q. 526. Which Indian teenage cricketer has attracted attention ahead of the 2026 Asian Games?
A. Vaibhav Sooryavanshi
B. Yash Dhull
C. Tilak Varma
D. Riyan Parag
Answer: A. Vaibhav Sooryavanshi
Explanation: Vaibhav Sooryavanshi, a young Indian cricketer, has attracted international attention ahead of the Asian Games.
Q. 527. Which Sri Lankan women’s cricketer was ruled out of the Asian Games because of a finger fracture?
A. Chamari Athapaththu
B. Nilakshika Silva
C. Harshitha Samarawickrama
D. Vishmi Gunaratne
Answer: B. Nilakshika Silva
Explanation: Nilakshika Silva suffered a fractured finger and was ruled out of Sri Lanka’s Asian Games campaign.
Q. 528. Which country is hosting the 2026 Asian Games?
A. China
B. Japan
C. India
D. South Korea
Answer: B. Japan
Explanation: The Aichi-Nagoya Asian Games are being hosted by Japan.
Q. 529. Who was appointed Deputy Chairperson of the ICC in September 2026?
A. Imran Khwaja
B. Tavengwa Mukuhlani
C. Greg Barclay
D. Sanjog Gupta
Answer: B. Tavengwa Mukuhlani
Explanation: Zimbabwe Cricket chairman Tavengwa Mukuhlani was appointed ICC Deputy Chairperson, succeeding Singapore’s Imran Khwaja.
Q. 530. Who is the current ICC Chair according to the ICC’s board information?
A. Roger Binny
B. Jay Shah
C. Greg Barclay
D. Sourav Ganguly
Answer: B. Jay Shah
Explanation: Jay Shah is listed as the Chair of the International Cricket Council.
Q. 531. Which Indian women’s team recently won the Asia Cup?
A. Women’s hockey team
B. Women’s cricket team
C. Women’s football team
D. Women’s kabaddi team
Answer: B. Women’s cricket team
Explanation: India’s women’s cricket team won the Women’s Asia Cup in September 2026.
Q. 532. Which Indian junior team won the Men’s Hockey Asia Cup in September 2026?
A. Senior men’s team
B. Junior men’s team
C. University team
D. Development team
Answer: B. Junior men’s team
Explanation: India’s junior men’s hockey team won the Asia Cup, with the achievement being recognised by the Prime Minister.
Q. 533. Who was the head coach of the Indian men’s cricket team in the recent Afghanistan T20I series?
A) Rahul Dravid
B) VVS Laxman
C) Gautam Gambhir
D) Anil Kumble
Answer: C) Gautam Gambhir
Explanation: Gautam Gambhir was India’s head coach during the Afghanistan T20I series. (The Indian Express)
Q. 534. Which major multi-sport event officially begins in Nagoya, Japan, on September 19, 2026?
A) Commonwealth Games
B) Asian Games
C) Olympic Games
D) World University Games
Answer: B) Asian Games
Explanation: The 2026 Asian Games in Aichi-Nagoya officially begin on September 19, 2026, with the opening ceremony in Nagoya. (The Times of India)
Q. 535. The 2026 Asian Games are being hosted by which country?
A) China
B) South Korea
C) Japan
D) Thailand
Answer: C) Japan
Explanation: The 2026 Asian Games are being held in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan. (The Times of India)
Q. 536. Which Indian athletes were named as flag-bearers for the 2026 Asian Games opening ceremony?
A) Neeraj Chopra and PV Sindhu
B) Manu Bhaker and Tajinderpal Singh Toor
C) Harmanpreet Singh and Lovlina Borgohain
D) Mirabai Chanu and Bajrang Punia
Answer: B) Manu Bhaker and Tajinderpal Singh Toor
Explanation: Manu Bhaker and Tajinderpal Singh Toor were named India’s flag-bearers for the opening ceremony. (The Times of India)
Q. 537. In which country is the 2026 Asian Games being held?
A) China
B) Japan
C) Indonesia
D) Malaysia
Answer: B) Japan
Explanation: The Asian Games 2026 are taking place in Japan, with Aichi-Nagoya as the host region. (The Times of India)
Q. 538. Which major international sporting event is currently being held in Japan?
A) Commonwealth Games
B) Asian Games
C) Winter Olympics
D) Youth Olympics
Answer: B) Asian Games
Explanation: The 2026 Asian Games are being held in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan. (Jagranjosh.com)
Q. 539. Which Indian shooter was one of the prominent athletes at the Asian Games 2026?
A) Manu Bhaker
B) Mary Kom
C) Mirabai Chanu
D) Hima Das
Answer: A) Manu Bhaker
Explanation: Olympic medallist Manu Bhaker is among India’s prominent shooting representatives at the 2026 Asian Games. (The Indian Express)
Q. 540. Who was reported as India’s Asian Games flag-bearer from the kabaddi contingent?
A) Pawan Sehrawat
B) Neeraj Chopra
C) Harmanpreet Singh
D) Tajinderpal Singh Toor
Answer: A) Pawan Sehrawat
Explanation: Reports on 20 September stated that kabaddi star Pawan Sehrawat replaced Tajinderpal Singh Toor as an Asian Games flag-bearer. (The Daily Jagran)
Q. 541. Which sport is associated with Tajinderpal Singh Toor?
A) Javelin throw
B) Shot put
C) Discus throw
D) Hammer throw
Answer: B) Shot put
Explanation: Tajinderpal Singh Toor is an Indian shot-put athlete and a prominent representative in athletics. (Jagranjosh.com)
Q. 542. The 2026 Asian Games are being hosted by which country?
A) South Korea
B) China
C) Japan
D) Thailand
Answer: C) Japan
Explanation: The 20th Asian Games are being held in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan, from September 19 to October 4, 2026.
Q. 543. Which Indian shooter won silver medals in both individual and team events at the Asian Games?
A) Manu Bhaker
B) Elavenil Valarivan
C) Sift Kaur Samra
D) Apurvi Chandela
Answer: B) Elavenil Valarivan
Explanation: Elavenil Valarivan won silver in the women’s 10m air rifle individual and team events at the 2026 Asian Games.
Q. 544. Which Indian athlete recently assured India of a medal in women’s traditional 60 kg MMA at the Asian Games?
A) Suchika Tariyal
B) Lovlina Borgohain
C) Nikhat Zareen
D) Mary Kom
Answer: A) Suchika Tariyal
Explanation: Suchika Tariyal reached the women’s traditional 60 kg MMA semifinal, assuring India of a medal.
Q. 545. Which organisation is conducting the 2026 Asian Games?
A) FIFA
B) Olympic Council of Asia
C) ICC
D) Asian Athletics Association
Answer: B) Olympic Council of Asia
Explanation: The Asian Games are the continental multi-sport event organised under the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA).
Q. 546. Nagoya, one of the host areas of the 2026 Asian Games, is located in which country?
A) China
B) Japan
C) South Korea
D) Vietnam
Answer: B) Japan
Explanation: The 2026 Asian Games are being held in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan.
Q. 547. The 2026 Asian Games began on which date?
A) September 1
B) September 10
C) September 19
D) September 25
Answer: C) September 19
Explanation: The 20th Asian Games began on September 19, 2026, and are scheduled through October 4.
Q. 548. Which initiative was held in Nagoya on September 20, 2026, to support the Indian Asian Games contingent?
A) Fit India Run
B) Sundays on Cycle
C) Khelo India Walk
D) Bharat Sports March
Answer: B) Sundays on Cycle
Explanation: Union Sports Minister Mansukh Mandaviya led the 91st edition of Sundays on Cycle at Meijō Park in Nagoya to support the Indian contingent.
Q. 549. India’s largest-ever skilled youth contingent was recently flagged off for which event?
A) WorldSkills Shanghai 2026
B) Olympics 2028
C) Asian Games 2026
D) Commonwealth Games
Answer: A) WorldSkills Shanghai 2026
Explanation: India flagged off its largest-ever skilled youth contingent for WorldSkills Shanghai 2026.
Q. 550. Which country is currently hosting the 2026 Asian Games?
A) Japan
B) China
C) India
D) Indonesia
Answer: A) Japan
Explanation: The 2026 Asian Games are being held in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan, from September 19 to October 4.
Q. 551. Which Indian team won gold at the 2026 Asian Games on 22 September?
A) Men’s hockey team
B) Women’s cricket team
C) Men’s cricket team
D) Women’s hockey team
Answer: B) Women’s cricket team
Explanation: India’s women’s cricket team won the gold medal and gave India its first gold medal of the 2026 Asian Games. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 552. Which team did India defeat in the women’s cricket final?
A) Australia
B) Pakistan
C) Sri Lanka
D) Bangladesh
Answer: C) Sri Lanka
Explanation: India defeated Sri Lanka in the women’s cricket final. India scored 216/3 and Sri Lanka were bowled out for 69. (India Today)
Q. 553. By how many runs did India defeat Sri Lanka in the women’s cricket final?
A) 97 runs
B) 117 runs
C) 137 runs
D) 147 runs
Answer: D) 147 runs
Explanation: India won by 147 runs, after scoring 216/3 and dismissing Sri Lanka for 69. (India Today)
Q. 554. Who scored 79 runs for India in the women’s cricket final?
A) Harmanpreet Kaur
B) Smriti Mandhana
C) Shafali Verma
D) Jemimah Rodrigues
Answer: B) Smriti Mandhana
Explanation: Smriti Mandhana scored 79 runs and played a major role in India’s 216/3 total. (India Today)
Q. 555. Where are the 2026 Asian Games being held?
A) Seoul, South Korea
B) Aichi-Nagoya, Japan
C) Beijing, China
D) Jakarta, Indonesia
Answer: B) Aichi-Nagoya, Japan
Explanation: The 2026 Asian Games are being held in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan, from 19 September to 4 October 2026. (Vajiram & Ravi)
Q. 556. From which date to which date are the 2026 Asian Games scheduled?
A) 1–15 September
B) 10 September–1 October
C) 19 September–4 October
D) 25 September–10 October
Answer: C) 19 September–4 October
Explanation: The 2026 Asian Games are scheduled for 19 September to 4 October 2026. (Vajiram & Ravi)
Q. 557. What type of hydrogen technology is associated with Maruti Suzuki’s new Manesar facility?
A) Blue hydrogen
B) Grey hydrogen
C) Green hydrogen
D) Black hydrogen
Answer: C) Green hydrogen
Analytical Explanation: Green hydrogen is produced using electrolysis powered by renewable electricity, potentially reducing emissions compared with fossil-fuel-based hydrogen production. (GKToday)
Q. 558. The rare leucistic Great Cormorant was spotted at which location?
A) Chilika Lake
B) Ameenpur Lake
C) Dal Lake
D) Loktak Lake
Answer: B) Ameenpur Lake
Analytical Explanation: The bird was spotted near BHEL in Hyderabad. Leucism causes reduced pigmentation and can make feathers appear unusually pale. (GKToday)
Q. 559. What is the key difference between leucism and albinism in birds?
A) Leucism affects only the eyes
B) Leucism involves reduced pigmentation, while albinism is associated with a complete lack of melanin
C) They are exactly the same condition
D) Leucism occurs only in mammals
Answer: B)
Analytical Explanation: Leucistic birds can retain pigmentation in the eyes and some body areas, while albinism involves a much broader absence of melanin.
Q. 560. Satnam Singh and Salman Khan won which medal at the 2026 Asian Games?
A) Gold
B) Silver
C) Bronze
D) No medal
Answer: C) Bronze
Analytical Explanation: The Indian pair won bronze in the men’s double sculls event. (GKToday)
Q. 561. Roshibina Devi won a silver medal in which event at the 2026 Asian Games?
A) Boxing
B) Sanda
C) Wrestling
D) Judo
Answer: B) Sanda
Analytical Explanation: Roshibina Devi won silver in the women’s 60 kg sanda category. Sanda is a combat discipline associated with wushu. (GKToday)
Q. 562. India won bronze in which Asian Games shooting team event involving Anantjeet Singh Naruka, Bhavtegh Singh Gill and Mairaj Ahmad Khan?
A) Men’s Skeet Team
B) Men’s Trap Team
C) Mixed Air Rifle Team
D) Men’s 10m Air Pistol Team
Answer: A) Men’s Skeet Team
Analytical Explanation: The trio secured a bronze medal in the men’s skeet team event. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 563. Jay Meena created history by becoming India’s first Asian Games medallist in:
A) Soft Tennis
B) Squash
C) Sanda
D) Archery
Answer: A) Soft Tennis
Analytical Explanation: Jay Meena won bronze in the men’s individual soft tennis event, becoming India’s first Asian Games medallist in the discipline. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 564. Mirabai Chanu won a silver medal in which category at the 2026 Asian Games?
A) Women’s 49 kg weightlifting
B) Women’s 59 kg weightlifting
C) Women’s 71 kg weightlifting
D) Women’s 76 kg weightlifting
Answer: A) Women’s 49 kg weightlifting
Analytical Explanation: Mirabai Chanu added a silver medal in the women’s 49 kg weightlifting event at the Asian Games. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 565. The Asian Games 2026 are being held in:
A) Seoul and Busan
B) Aichi-Nagoya, Japan
C) Tokyo and Osaka
D) Beijing and Shanghai
Answer: B) Aichi-Nagoya, Japan
Analytical Explanation: The 2026 Asian Games are being hosted by Aichi-Nagoya in Japan, bringing together athletes from across Asia. Recent Indian medal results include rowing, wushu, shooting and weightlifting. (Olympics)
Q. 566. The 2026 Asian Games are being held in which country?
A) China
B) Japan
C) South Korea
D) India
Answer: B) Japan
Analytical Explanation: The Aichi-Nagoya Asian Games 2026 are being held in Japan. India has been competing across athletics, shooting, badminton, kabaddi and other sports. (ESPN Africa)
Q. 567. Who won India’s shooting gold in the mixed-team 10m air pistol event at the 2026 Asian Games?
A) Manu Bhaker and Sarabjot Singh
B) Kamaljeet and Suruchi Singh
C) Sift Kaur Samra and Rudrankksh Patil
D) Elavenil Valarivan and Anantjeet Singh
Answer: B) Kamaljeet and Suruchi Singh
Analytical Explanation: Kamaljeet and Suruchi Singh won India’s first shooting gold at the Games in the 10m air pistol mixed-team event. (The Times of India)
Q. 568. Which Indian athlete won silver in the men’s 10,000m at the 2026 Asian Games?
A) Gulveer Singh
B) Neeraj Chopra
C) Avinash Sable
D) Tajinderpal Singh Toor
Answer: A) Gulveer Singh
Analytical Explanation: Gulveer Singh won silver in the men’s 10,000m, recording 28:29.38. It was his second consecutive Asian Games medal in the event. (Reuters Connect)
Q. 569. Which country produced the swimmer who became the first swimmer to win seven gold medals at a single Asian Games?
A) Japan
B) China
C) South Korea
D) Australia
Answer: B) China
Analytical Explanation: China’s Zhang Zhanshuo became the first swimmer to win seven gold medals at an Asian Games during the 2026 competition. (Reuters)
Q. 570. Which sport gave India its first shooting gold medal at the 2026 Asian Games?
A) 10m air pistol mixed team
B) 50m rifle individual
C) Skeet individual
D) 25m rapid fire pistol
Answer: A) 10m air pistol mixed team
Analytical Explanation: Kamaljeet and Suruchi Singh won India’s first shooting gold of the Games in the 10m air pistol mixed-team event. (The Times of India)
Q. 571. Which sport saw India secure medals through the men’s 50m rifle 3 positions team event?
A) Shooting
B) Archery
C) Fencing
D) Boxing
Answer: A) Shooting
Analytical Explanation: Aishwary Pratap Singh Tomar, Rudrankksh Patil and Niraj Kumar won silver in the men’s 50m rifle 3 positions team event. (The Times of India)
Q. 572. Which two Indian kabaddi teams were scheduled to compete for gold at the 2026 Asian Games on 26 September?
A) Men’s and women’s teams
B) Men’s team only
C) Women’s team only
D) Junior and senior teams
Answer: A) Men’s and women’s teams
Analytical Explanation: Both India’s men’s and women’s kabaddi teams were scheduled to face Iran in their respective finals on 26 September. (The Times of India)
Q. 573. Which country is the host of the 2026 Asian Games?
A) China
B) South Korea
C) Japan
D) India
Answer: C) Japan
Analytical Explanation: The 20th Asian Games are being held in the Aichi-Nagoya region of Japan from 19 September to 4 October 2026. (Reuters)
Q. 574. The 2026 Asian Games are officially known as:
A) Tokyo Asian Games
B) Aichi-Nagoya Asian Games
C) Osaka Asian Games
D) Hiroshima Asian Games
Answer: B) Aichi-Nagoya Asian Games
Analytical Explanation: The Games are being hosted primarily by Aichi Prefecture and Nagoya, with some events in other Japanese cities. (Reuters)
Q. 575. How many sports are featured in the 2026 Asian Games?
A) 40
B) 41
C) 43
D) 45
Answer: C) 43
Analytical Explanation: The Aichi-Nagoya Games feature 43 sports and 469 medal events, compared with 40 sports at Hangzhou 2022. (Reuters)
Q. 576. Which of the following is a new sport at the 2026 Asian Games?
A) Padel
B) Chess
C) Bridge
D) Dragon boat racing
Answer: A) Padel
Analytical Explanation: Padel, along with sports such as mixed martial arts and surfing, is among the new additions to the Aichi-Nagoya programme. (Reuters)
Q. 577. Who won India’s historic silver medal in the men’s marathon at the 2026 Asian Games?
A) Gulveer Singh
B) Sawan Barwal
C) Avinash Sable
D) Kartik Karkera
Answer: B) Sawan Barwal
Analytical Explanation: Sawan Barwal won silver in the men’s marathon, ending India’s 44-year wait for a medal in the event. He recorded 2:11:37, reported as a national record. (Akashvani News)
Q. 578. Sawan Barwal’s Asian Games marathon medal ended India’s wait of approximately:
A) 24 years
B) 34 years
C) 44 years
D) 54 years
Answer: C) 44 years
Analytical Explanation: His silver ended India’s 44-year wait for an Asian Games marathon medal. (Akashvani News)
Q. 579. Which Indian team won gold in women’s kabaddi at the 2026 Asian Games?
A) India
B) Japan
C) Iran
D) South Korea
Answer: A) India
Analytical Explanation: India’s women’s kabaddi team defeated Iran in the final and retained its Asian Games title. (Hindustan Times)
Q. 580. India defeated which country in the men’s kabaddi final at the 2026 Asian Games?
A) Iran
B) Japan
C) South Korea
D) China
Answer: A) Iran
Analytical Explanation: Both Indian kabaddi teams faced Iran in their respective gold-medal matches on 26 September, with India seeking to defend its previous Asian Games titles. (India Today)
Q. 581. Which Indian squash player reached the women’s singles final at the 2026 Asian Games?
A) Joshna Chinappa
B) Anahat Singh
C) Dipika Pallikal
D) Tanvi Khanna
Answer: B) Anahat Singh
Analytical Explanation: Anahat Singh advanced to the women’s singles final, adding to India’s squash medal prospects at Aichi-Nagoya. (India Today)
Q. 582. How many times has Japan hosted the Asian Games including the 2026 edition?
A) Once
B) Twice
C) Three times
D) Four times
Answer: C) Three times
Analytical Explanation: Japan previously hosted the Asian Games in Tokyo in 1958 and Hiroshima in 1994, making Aichi-Nagoya 2026 its third hosting occasion. (Reuters)
Q. 583. Which country is the official host of World Tourism Day 2026?
A) India
B) Japan
C) El Salvador
D) Spain
Answer: C) El Salvador
Analytical Explanation: El Salvador is the official host country for World Tourism Day 2026. (Shankar IAS Parliament)
Q. 584. Who became the first Indian male recurve archer to win an Archery World Cup Final title?
A) Atanu Das
B) Dhiraj Bommadevara
C) Tarundeep Rai
D) Jayanta Talukdar
Answer: B) Dhiraj Bommadevara
Analytical Explanation: Dhiraj Bommadevara defeated Japan’s Junya Nakanishi in a shoot-off at Saltillo, Mexico, becoming the first Indian male recurve archer to win a World Cup Final title. (The Indian Express)
Q. 585. The 2032 UCI Road World Championships are scheduled to be hosted by which Indian city?
A) Delhi
B) Mumbai
C) Pune
D) Bengaluru
Answer: C) Pune
Analytical Explanation: Pune was selected to host the 2032 UCI Road World Championships. The event would mark an important milestone for India’s international cycling calendar. (Shankar IAS Parliament)
Q. 586. Which country/region had previously hosted the UCI Road World Championships in Asia before India’s scheduled 2032 edition?
A) Japan
B) Qatar
C) UAE
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Analytical Explanation: India is set to join Japan, Qatar and the UAE as Asian hosts of the UCI Road World Championships. Pune is the designated Indian host city for 2032. (Shankar IAS Parliament)
Q. 587. India’s first LNG-powered train uses which propulsion arrangement?
A) LNG-only system
B) Hydrogen-electric system
C) LNG-diesel dual-fuel system
D) CNG-diesel system
Answer: C) LNG-diesel dual-fuel system
Explanation: The train can operate using both LNG and diesel. LNG can replace roughly 40% of diesel consumption, providing operational flexibility while reducing fuel use and emissions. (The Indian Express)
Q. 588. What is the principal concept behind orbital computing?
A) Producing fuel in space
B) Processing data in orbit
C) Building satellites on the Moon
D) Transmitting television signals only
Answer: B) Processing data in orbit
Explanation: Orbital computing seeks to process data close to where it is collected in space, potentially reducing the need to transmit large volumes of raw data to Earth. (Reuters)
Q. 589. The 2026 Asian Games are being held in:
A) Seoul
B) Aichi-Nagoya, Japan
C) Jakarta
D) Doha
Answer: B) Aichi-Nagoya, Japan
Explanation: The 2026 Asian Games are being held in the Aichi-Nagoya region of Japan. (Olympics)
Q. 590. Which Indian athlete won silver in men’s javelin throw at the 2026 Asian Games on September 28?
A) Rohit Yadav
B) Yashvir Singh
C) Neeraj Chopra
D) Kishore Jena
Answer: B) Yashvir Singh
Explanation: Yashvir Singh won silver with a personal best, while compatriot Rohit Yadav won bronze, producing a double Indian podium finish. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 591. Who won bronze alongside Yashvir Singh in men’s javelin?
A) Rohit Yadav
B) Gulveer Singh
C) Tajinderpal Singh Toor
D) Sarvesh Kushare
Answer: A) Rohit Yadav
Explanation: Rohit Yadav secured the bronze medal, giving India two medals in men’s javelin at the Asian Games. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 592. Murali Sreeshankar won a medal in which event at the 2026 Asian Games?
A) Triple jump
B) Long jump
C) High jump
D) Pole vault
Answer: B) Long jump
Explanation: Murali Sreeshankar won silver in the men’s long jump. (Akashvani News)
Q. 593. Gulveer Singh won silver in which event at the 2026 Asian Games?
A) 800m
B) 1500m
C) 5000m
D) 10,000m
Answer: B) 1500m
Explanation: Gulveer Singh won the silver medal in the men’s 1500m event. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 594. Esha Singh won silver in which event at the 2026 Asian Games?
A) Women’s 10m air rifle
B) Women’s 25m pistol
C) Women’s skeet
D) Women’s 50m rifle
Answer: B) Women’s 25m pistol
Explanation: Esha Singh won silver in the women’s 25m pistol individual event after a shoot-off. (The Times of India)
Q. 595. Pincky Balhara won bronze in which sport/event?
A) Boxing – 75 kg
B) Kurash – Women’s -78 kg
C) Judo – Women’s -78 kg
D) Wrestling – 76 kg
Answer: B) Kurash – Women’s -78 kg
Explanation: Pincky Balhara won bronze in the women’s -78 kg Kurash event at the 2026 Asian Games. (Akashvani News)
Q. 596. Who recently became the first Indian woman to win an individual gold medal in women’s trap shooting at the Asian Games?
A. Manisha Keer
B. Neeru Dhanda
C. Aashima Ahlawat
D. Rajeshwari Kumari
Answer: B. Neeru Dhanda
Analytical Explanation: Neeru Dhanda created history at the 2026 Asian Games by winning India’s first individual gold in women’s trap shooting. Her achievement added another landmark to India’s shooting performance at the Games.
Q. 597. The 2026 Asian Games are being hosted in which country?
A. China
B. South Korea
C. Japan
D. Indonesia
Answer: C. Japan
Analytical Explanation: The 2026 Asian Games are being held in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan. The event has provided Indian athletes opportunities across athletics, shooting, boxing and other disciplines.
Q. 598. Which Indian athlete completed a three-medal haul at the 2026 Asian Games?
A. Gulveer Singh
B. Avinash Sable
C. Kishore Jena
D. Tejaswin Shankar
Answer: A. Gulveer Singh
Analytical Explanation: Gulveer Singh won medals in the 10,000m, 1,500m and 5,000m events, completing a medal hat-trick at the Games.
Q. 599. India won gold in which women’s athletics relay event at the 2026 Asian Games?
A. 4×100m relay
B. 4×400m relay
C. 4×800m relay
D. Mixed 4×400m relay
Answer: B. 4×400m relay
Analytical Explanation: The Indian women’s 4×400m relay team won gold in Aichi-Nagoya. The team clocked 3:29.69, adding another athletics gold to India’s medal tally.
Q. 600. Neeru Dhanda won gold in which event at the 2026 Asian Games?
A. Women’s skeet
B. Women’s individual trap
C. Women’s 10m air rifle
D. Women’s 50m rifle
Answer: B. Women’s individual trap
Analytical Explanation: Dhanda’s gold was India’s first individual gold in women’s trap shooting at the Asian Games.
Q. 601. Gulveer Singh won a bronze medal in which event at the 2026 Asian Games?
A. 800m
B. 1,500m
C. 5,000m
D. Marathon
Answer: C. 5,000m
Analytical Explanation: Gulveer added the 5,000m bronze to his earlier medals, completing a three-medal haul at the Games.
Q. 602. Which Indian boxer won bronze in the men’s +90 kg category after losing in the semifinal?
A. Ankush Panghal
B. Narender Berwal
C. Nishant Dev
D. Amit Panghal
Answer: B. Narender Berwal
Analytical Explanation: Narender Berwal secured a bronze medal after his semifinal defeat to Kazakhstan’s Aibek Oralbay.
Q. 603. Which Indian women’s doubles pair won bronze at the 2026 BWF World Championships?
A. Treesa Jolly and Gayatri Gopichand
B. Ashwini Ponnappa and Tanisha Crasto
C. Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty
D. Priya Konjengbam and Shruti Mishra
Answer: A. Treesa Jolly and Gayatri Gopichand
Analytical Explanation: Treesa Jolly and Gayatri Gopichand won bronze, marking an important achievement for Indian women’s doubles badminton.
Q. 604. Who became the first Indian to win the Grand Chess Tour title?
A. D. Gukesh
B. R. Praggnanandhaa
C. Viswanathan Anand
D. Arjun Erigaisi
Answer: B. R. Praggnanandhaa
Analytical Explanation: Praggnanandhaa won the 2026 Grand Chess Tour title after defeating Fabiano Caruana in the final in St. Louis.
Q. 605. Who was named FPAI Indian Men’s Player of the Year 2026?
A. Sunil Chhetri
B. Lallianzuala Chhangte
C. Gurpreet Singh Sandhu
D. Sandesh Jhingan
Answer: B. Lallianzuala Chhangte
Analytical Explanation: Lallianzuala Chhangte received the FPAI Indian Men’s Player of the Year award for 2026.
Q. 606. Who won the FPAI Indian Women’s Player of the Year 2026 award?
A. Manisha Kalyan
B. Bala Devi
C. Anju Tamang
D. Soumya Guguloth
Answer: A. Manisha Kalyan
Analytical Explanation: Manisha Kalyan was named the FPAI Indian Women’s Player of the Year, recognizing her contribution to Indian football.
Awards & Important Days
Total Questions: 27
Q. 607. Where was the 9th Rashtriya Poshan Maah 2026 launched?
A. New Delhi
B. Jaipur
C. Varanasi
D. Mumbai
Answer: C. Varanasi
Explanation: The 9th Rashtriya Poshan Maah was launched on 9 September 2026 in Varanasi.
Q. 608. What was the theme of the 9th Rashtriya Poshan Maah 2026?
A. Poshan for All
B. Hamari Anganwadi, Hamari Jimmedari
C. Swasth Bharat, Saksham Bharat
D. Poshan Se Pragati
Answer: B. Hamari Anganwadi, Hamari Jimmedari
Explanation: The 2026 Poshan Maah focused on community ownership of Anganwadi Centres and nutrition-related priorities under the theme “Hamari Anganwadi, Hamari Jimmedari.”
Q. 609. When is National Engineers’ Day observed in India?
A. 5 September
B. 14 September
C. 15 September
D. 16 September
Answer: C. 15 September
Explanation: National Engineers’ Day is observed every year on 15 September to commemorate the birth anniversary of Sir Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya.
Q. 610. Whose birth anniversary is commemorated on National Engineers’ Day?
A. C. V. Raman
B. M. Visvesvaraya
C. Homi J. Bhabha
D. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
Answer: B. M. Visvesvaraya
Explanation: National Engineers’ Day commemorates Bharat Ratna Sir Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya and his contribution to engineering and nation-building.
Q. 611. In which year did India first observe National Engineers’ Day?
A. 1958
B. 1965
C. 1968
D. 1975
Answer: C. 1968
Explanation: The Government of India designated 15 September as National Engineers’ Day in 1968, and the first observance was held that year.
Q. 612. On which date is Hindi Diwas observed in India?
A. 10 September
B. 14 September
C. 15 September
D. 20 September
Answer: B. 14 September
Explanation: Hindi Diwas is observed annually on 14 September, commemorating the Constituent Assembly’s 1949 decision concerning Hindi in the Devanagari script.
Q. 613. Which script was associated with Hindi in the Constituent Assembly’s 1949 decision commemorated by Hindi Diwas?
A. Roman
B. Devanagari
C. Gurmukhi
D. Bengali
Answer: B. Devanagari
Explanation: Hindi in the Devanagari script was adopted by the Constituent Assembly in 1949 as one of the official languages of the Union.
Q. 614. Which award did an engineering student from Andhra Pradesh reportedly win in India in 2026?
A) Earthshot Prize
B) James Dyson Award
C) Ramon Magsaysay Award
D) Young Scientist Award
Answer: B) James Dyson Award
Explanation: A student from Andhra Pradesh won the James Dyson Award in India 2026, according to September 17 current-affairs reports. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 615. Michael Kremer received the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences in which year?
A) 2017
B) 2018
C) 2019
D) 2020
Answer: C) 2019
Explanation: Michael Kremer shared the 2019 Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences with Esther Duflo and Abhijit Banerjee for their experimental approach to alleviating global poverty. (reuters.com)
Q. 616. Which award did an engineering student from Andhra Pradesh reportedly win in India in 2026?
A) Earthshot Prize
B) James Dyson Award
C) Ramon Magsaysay Award
D) Young Scientist Award
Answer: B) James Dyson Award
Explanation: A student from Andhra Pradesh won the James Dyson Award in India 2026, according to September 17 current-affairs reports. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 617. Michael Kremer received the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences in which year?
A) 2017
B) 2018
C) 2019
D) 2020
Answer: C) 2019
Explanation: Michael Kremer shared the 2019 Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences with Esther Duflo and Abhijit Banerjee for their experimental approach to alleviating global poverty. (reuters.com)
Q. 618. Who was honoured with the Kalinga Ratna Award in September 2026?
A. Justice Dipak Misra
B. Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
C. Justice Ranjan Gogoi
D. Justice U.U. Lalit
Answer: A. Justice Dipak Misra
Explanation: Former Chief Justice of India Justice Dipak Misra was honoured with the Kalinga Ratna Award by the Sarala Sahitya Sansad.
Q. 619. What was the theme of Rashtriya Poshan Maah 2026?
A. Poshan for All
B. Hamari Anganwadi, Hamari Jimmedari
C. Swasth Bharat
D. Poshan Shakti
Answer: B. Hamari Anganwadi, Hamari Jimmedari
Explanation: The theme highlights community responsibility and the important role of Anganwadi centres in nutrition and child development.
Q. 620. Which film was selected as India’s official entry for the 2027 Academy Awards, according to recent reports?
A) Gondhal
B) Kantara
C) The Kerala Story
D) Pushpa 2
Answer: A) Gondhal
Explanation: Marathi film Gondhal was reported as India’s official entry for the Oscars 2027. (The Daily Jagran)
Q. 621. On which date is Ayurveda Day being observed in India in 2026?
A) 21 September
B) 22 September
C) 23 September
D) 24 September
Answer: C) 23 September
Explanation: The 11th Ayurveda Day is being observed on 23 September 2026. The 2026 theme is “Ayurveda for a Healthier Tomorrow.” (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 622. What is the theme of Ayurveda Day 2026?
A) Ayurveda for Global Health
B) Ayurveda for a Healthier Tomorrow
C) Ayurveda and Modern Medicine
D) Healthy India through Ayurveda
Answer: B) Ayurveda for a Healthier Tomorrow
Explanation: The Ministry of Ayush announced “Ayurveda for a Healthier Tomorrow” as the theme for the 11th Ayurveda Day. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 623. Where will the main Ayurveda Day 2026 celebrations be held?
A) New Delhi
B) Jaipur
C) Nagpur
D) Varanasi
Answer: C) Nagpur
Explanation: The main national celebrations of Ayurveda Day 2026 are being held in Nagpur, Maharashtra. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 624. The 72nd National Film Awards 2026 were presented at which location?
A) New Delhi
B) Mumbai
C) Ekta Nagar, Kevadia
D) Hyderabad
Answer: C) Ekta Nagar, Kevadia
Explanation: The 72nd National Film Awards ceremony was held at Ekta Nagar, Kevadia, Gujarat, on 22 September 2026. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 625. Who received the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2024?
A) Amitabh Bachchan
B) Anant Nag
C) Naseeruddin Shah
D) Mithun Chakraborty
Answer: B) Anant Nag
Explanation: Veteran actor Anant Nag was honoured with the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2024 for his contribution to Indian cinema. (The Times of India)
Q. 626. Which major international issue was discussed prominently at the UN General Assembly in September 2026?
A) Global conflicts and peace
B) Olympic bidding
C) Cricket rankings
D) Film awards
Answer: A) Global conflicts and peace
Explanation: The 2026 UN General Assembly has been dominated by discussions involving conflicts including Iran, Gaza, Ukraine, Sudan, Congo and Myanmar. (AP News)
Q. 627. Which important day is observed on 23 September 2026 in India?
A) National Sports Day
B) Ayurveda Day
C) Constitution Day
D) National Science Day
Answer: B) Ayurveda Day
Explanation: 23 September 2026 marks the 11th Ayurveda Day, with the theme “Ayurveda for a Healthier Tomorrow.” (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 628. Who received the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2024?
A) Amitabh Bachchan
B) Anant Nag
C) Naseeruddin Shah
D) Mammootty
Answer: B) Anant Nag
Analytical Explanation: Kannada cinema veteran Anant Nag was selected for the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2024. The award is India’s highest honour in the field of cinema. (The Indian Express)
Q. 629. Hindi Diwas is observed every year on which date?
A) 10 January
B) 14 September
C) 26 January
D) 14 November
Answer: B) 14 September
Analytical Explanation: Hindi Diwas commemorates the Constituent Assembly’s adoption of Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union on 14 September 1949. (The Indian Express)
Q. 630. World Tourism Day is observed every year on:
A) 21 September
B) 25 September
C) 27 September
D) 30 September
Answer: C) 27 September
Analytical Explanation: World Tourism Day is observed annually on 27 September to highlight tourism’s social, cultural, political and economic significance. (Shankar IAS Parliament)
Q. 631. Which summit marked the 25th anniversary of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation in 2026?
A. 25th SCO Summit
B. 26th SCO Summit
C. 27th SCO Summit
D. 30th SCO Summit
Answer: B. 26th SCO Summit
Analytical Explanation: The 26th SCO Summit was held in Bishkek in 2026, a year marking 25 years of the organization.
Q. 632. International Translation Day is observed on:
A. 21 September
B. 27 September
C. 28 September
D. 30 September
Answer: D. 30 September
Analytical Explanation: International Translation Day is observed annually on 30 September. The date is associated with St. Jerome, traditionally regarded as the patron saint of translators.
Q. 633. World Tourism Day is observed every year on:
A. 21 September
B. 25 September
C. 27 September
D. 30 September
Answer: C. 27 September
Analytical Explanation: World Tourism Day is observed on 27 September to highlight tourism’s social, cultural, economic and developmental significance.
Mixed / General Awareness
Total Questions: 67
Q. 634. How high is the proposed Kishau dam?
A) 125.6 metres
B) 180 metres
C) 232.6 metres
D) 300 metres
Answer: C) 232.6 metres
Explanation: The proposed Kishau dam is a 232.6-metre-high concrete gravity dam. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 635. Which states and Union Territory were involved in the recent Kishau agreement?
A) Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Rajasthan, UP and Himachal Pradesh
B) Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan and Delhi
C) Bihar, UP, Uttarakhand, Haryana, Punjab and Delhi
D) Rajasthan, Gujarat, MP, Haryana, Delhi and UP
Answer: B) Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan and Delhi
Explanation: The agreement involved the six Yamuna-basin beneficiaries/stakeholders listed above. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 636. Which other two storage projects were planned along with Kishau in the upper Yamuna region?
A) Tehri and Sardar Sarovar
B) Lakhwar and Renukaji
C) Bhakra and Pong
D) Hirakud and Rihand
Answer: B) Lakhwar and Renukaji
Explanation: The three planned storage projects were Kishau, Lakhwar and Renukaji. MoUs for Lakhwar and Renukaji had already been signed and were under implementation. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 637. How high is the proposed Kishau dam?
A) 125.6 metres
B) 180 metres
C) 232.6 metres
D) 300 metres
Answer: C) 232.6 metres
Explanation: The proposed Kishau dam is a 232.6-metre-high concrete gravity dam. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 638. Which states and Union Territory were involved in the recent Kishau agreement?
A) Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Rajasthan, UP and Himachal Pradesh
B) Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan and Delhi
C) Bihar, UP, Uttarakhand, Haryana, Punjab and Delhi
D) Rajasthan, Gujarat, MP, Haryana, Delhi and UP
Answer: B) Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan and Delhi
Explanation: The agreement involved the six Yamuna-basin beneficiaries/stakeholders listed above. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 639. Which other two storage projects were planned along with Kishau in the upper Yamuna region?
A) Tehri and Sardar Sarovar
B) Lakhwar and Renukaji
C) Bhakra and Pong
D) Hirakud and Rihand
Answer: B) Lakhwar and Renukaji
Explanation: The three planned storage projects were Kishau, Lakhwar and Renukaji. MoUs for Lakhwar and Renukaji had already been signed and were under implementation. (indianexpress.com)
Q. 640. On which date did Prime Minister Narendra Modi celebrate his 76th birthday in 2026?
A. 15 September
B. 16 September
C. 17 September
D. 18 September
Answer: C. 17 September
Explanation: Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s 76th birthday was observed on 17 September 2026.
Q. 641. Until when is Tavengwa Mukuhlani scheduled to serve as ICC Deputy Chairperson?
A. November 2026
B. November 2027
C. December 2027
D. November 2028
Answer: B. November 2027
Explanation: His term as ICC Deputy Chairperson is scheduled to run until November 2027.
Q. 642. Which state ranked first in the Jal Sanchay Jan Bhagidari 3.0 campaign?
A. Odisha
B. Chhattisgarh
C. Gujarat
D. Rajasthan
Answer: B. Chhattisgarh
Explanation: Chhattisgarh ranked first nationally after completing more than 79,000 community-led water conservation structures.
Q. 643. Which city ranked first among cities with more than one million population in Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan 2026?
A. Indore
B. Delhi
C. Lucknow
D. Mumbai
Answer: C. Lucknow
Explanation: Lucknow ranked first in the category of cities with populations above one million, followed by Indore and Jabalpur.
Q. 644. What is the basic training stipend provided under PM Vishwakarma?
A) ₹250 per day
B) ₹500 per day
C) ₹750 per day
D) ₹1,000 per day
Answer: B) ₹500 per day
Explanation: Beneficiaries completing the basic skill training receive a ₹500 daily training stipend. (Insights IAS)
Q. 645. What is the maximum value of the toolkit provided under PM Vishwakarma?
A) ₹5,000
B) ₹10,000
C) ₹15,000
D) ₹25,000
Answer: C) ₹15,000
Explanation: Customized toolkits valued at up to ₹15,000 are provided to eligible artisans. (Insights IAS)
Q. 646. Project Cheetah was launched in India in which year?
A) 2020
B) 2021
C) 2022
D) 2023
Answer: C) 2022
Explanation: Project Cheetah began on 17 September 2022, when eight Namibian cheetahs were released at Kuno National Park. (Manora May Yearbook)
Q. 647. Which national park is the principal site of Project Cheetah?
A) Gir National Park
B) Kuno National Park
C) Ranthambore National Park
D) Kanha National Park
Answer: B) Kuno National Park
Explanation: Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh has been the principal site for India’s cheetah reintroduction programme. (Manora May Yearbook)
Q. 648. Which other protected area in Madhya Pradesh currently houses cheetahs under Project Cheetah?
A) Pench Tiger Reserve
B) Bandhavgarh National Park
C) Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary
D) Satpura National Park
Answer: C) Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary
Explanation: Along with Kuno, Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary is another location housing cheetahs under the programme. (Vajiram & Ravi)
Q. 649. Which country recently declared a national HIV emergency?
A) Fiji
B) Samoa
C) Tonga
D) Vanuatu
Answer: A) Fiji
Explanation: Fiji declared a national HIV emergency following a sharp increase in HIV infections and announced expanded testing, treatment and prevention measures. (AP News)
Q. 650. Who scored the record-breaking T20I century for India against Afghanistan?
A) Sanju Samson
B) Abhishek Sharma
C) Shubman Gill
D) Suryakumar Yadav
Answer: B) Abhishek Sharma
Explanation: Indian opener Abhishek Sharma scored a record-breaking century in the third T20I against Afghanistan. (Al Jazeera)
Q. 651. In how many balls did Abhishek Sharma score his century?
A) 28 balls
B) 30 balls
C) 32 balls
D) 35 balls
Answer: B) 30 balls
Explanation: Abhishek Sharma reached his century in just 30 balls, setting a major T20I record. (Al Jazeera)
Q. 652. India defeated Afghanistan by how many runs in the third T20I?
A) 87 runs
B) 107 runs
C) 127 runs
D) 147 runs
Answer: C) 127 runs
Explanation: India defeated Afghanistan by 127 runs in the third T20I and completed a 3–0 series victory. (Al Jazeera)
Q. 653. Where was the third India–Afghanistan T20I played?
A) Mumbai
B) Kolkata
C) New Delhi
D) Bengaluru
Answer: C) New Delhi
Explanation: The match was played at the Arun Jaitley Stadium in New Delhi. (Al Jazeera)
Q. 654. Which Indian city hosted the 51st state-of-the-art Doppler Weather Radar mentioned in recent UPSC current affairs?
A) Bhubaneswar
B) Sambalpur
C) Cuttack
D) Rourkela
Answer: B) Sambalpur
Explanation: A Doppler Weather Radar was recently inaugurated at Sambalpur, Odisha, taking the number of such radars to 51. (The Indian Express)
Q. 655. Doppler Weather Radars are mainly used for monitoring what?
A) Earthquakes
B) Weather systems
C) Ocean currents
D) Soil fertility
Answer: B) Weather systems
Explanation: Doppler Weather Radars help detect and monitor precipitation, wind patterns, storms and other atmospheric phenomena. (The Indian Express)
Q. 656. What is a Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicle (PHEV)?
A) A vehicle powered only by petrol
B) A vehicle combining an electric motor and internal-combustion engine with rechargeable battery capability
C) A hydrogen-only vehicle
D) A diesel-only vehicle
Answer: B) A vehicle combining an electric motor and internal-combustion engine with rechargeable battery capability
Explanation: A PHEV combines an internal-combustion engine with an electric drivetrain and has a battery that can be charged externally. (The Indian Express)
Q. 657. Project Cheetah is primarily associated with the conservation of which animal?
A) Snow leopard
B) Cheetah
C) Lion
D) Blackbuck
Answer: B) Cheetah
Explanation: Project Cheetah is India’s programme for establishing and conserving cheetah populations in suitable habitats. (The Indian Express)
Q. 658. The Third Geneva Convention primarily deals with:
A) Protection of civilians
B) Prisoners of war
C) Maritime boundaries
D) Refugees
Answer: B) Prisoners of war
Explanation: The Third Geneva Convention of 1949 establishes protections and standards concerning the treatment of prisoners of war.
Q. 659. Which body is responsible for film certification in India?
A) TRAI
B) CBFC
C) SEBI
D) UGC
Answer: B) CBFC
Explanation: The Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is India’s statutory body responsible for film certification. Recent changes include UA age categories such as UA 7+, UA 13+ and UA 16+. (The Indian Express)
Q. 660. Which of the following is the correct set of new UA age markers under the recent Cinematograph Rules?
A) UA 5+, UA 10+, UA 15+
B) UA 7+, UA 13+, UA 16+
C) UA 8+, UA 12+, UA 18+
D) UA 6+, UA 14+, UA 18+
Answer: B) UA 7+, UA 13+, UA 16+
Explanation: The updated classification framework uses UA 7+, UA 13+ and UA 16+ age markers to provide more specific guidance for viewers. (The Indian Express)
Q. 661. Who recently became the highest run-scorer in Women’s T20 Internationals?
A) Harmanpreet Kaur
B) Smriti Mandhana
C) Shafali Verma
D) Ellyse Perry
Answer: B) Smriti Mandhana
Explanation: Smriti Mandhana recently became the highest run-scorer in Women’s T20Is, crossing the previous benchmark with a total of 4,788 runs.
Q. 662. Which railway zone announced more than 1,000 special train trips for the festive season?
A) Northern Railway
B) Eastern Railway
C) North Central Railway
D) Southern Railway
Answer: C) North Central Railway
Explanation: North Central Railway announced more than 1,000 special train trips to handle the expected festive-season passenger rush.
Q. 663. Which meteorological system was developing over the North Andaman Sea?
A) Cyclone
B) Low-pressure system
C) Western disturbance
D) Heat wave
Answer: B) Low-pressure system
Explanation: A low-pressure system had developed over the North Andaman Sea and was expected to intensify while moving toward the Odisha–Andhra coast.
Q. 664. NTPC recently terminated a contract worth approximately how much for a 400 MWh BESS project?
A) ₹113.37 crore
B) ₹213.37 crore
C) ₹313.37 crore
D) ₹413.37 crore
Answer: D) ₹413.37 crore
Explanation: NTPC terminated a ₹413.37 crore contract for a 400 MWh BESS project at Mouda Super Thermal Power Station in Maharashtra.
Q. 665. The 400 MWh BESS project mentioned recently was associated with which NTPC power station?
A) Singrauli
B) Mouda
C) Korba
D) Ramagundam
Answer: B) Mouda
Explanation: The project was planned at Mouda Super Thermal Power Station in Maharashtra.
Q. 666. The 9th India International Water Week 2026 is scheduled to be inaugurated on:
A) September 20
B) September 21
C) September 22
D) September 25
Answer: C) September 22
Explanation: The 9th India International Water Week 2026 is scheduled to be inaugurated on September 22 in New Delhi.
Q. 667. India is set to debut in how many new skills at WorldSkills Shanghai 2026?
A) Five
B) Seven
C) Eleven
D) Fifteen
Answer: C) Eleven
Explanation: India is scheduled to debut in 11 new skills at WorldSkills Shanghai 2026.
Q. 668. Who inaugurated the 9th India International Water Week 2026?
A) Narendra Modi
B) C. P. Radhakrishnan
C) C. R. Patil
D) Amit Shah
Answer: B) C. P. Radhakrishnan
Explanation: Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan inaugurated the 9th India International Water Week at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, on 22 September 2026. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 669. Where did Exercise Veer Guardian 2026 conclude?
A) Jodhpur
B) Pune
C) Chennai
D) Visakhapatnam
Answer: A) Jodhpur
Explanation: The exercise concluded at Air Force Station Jodhpur on 22 September 2026. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 670. How many Temporary Employment Entry visas are specifically provided for skilled Indians under the FTA?
A) 1,000
B) 2,500
C) 5,000
D) 10,000
Answer: C) 5,000
Explanation: The agreement provides a dedicated quota of 5,000 Temporary Employment Entry visas for skilled Indians. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 671. The Second Saraighat Bridge project is being developed over which river?
A) Ganga
B) Yamuna
C) Brahmaputra
D) Teesta
Answer: C) Brahmaputra
Analytical Explanation: The project involves a new rail-cum-road bridge over the Brahmaputra in Assam, strengthening connectivity around Guwahati. (GKToday)
Q. 672. SAT-SAAW can be launched from which of the following aircraft?
A) Jaguar
B) C-17
C) C-130J
D) Dornier 228
Answer: A) Jaguar
Analytical Explanation: SAT-SAAW is designed for aircraft such as the Jaguar, Hawk and Su-30MKI, providing stand-off strike capability. (GKToday)
Q. 673. A new human brain-cell atlas recently mapped gene activity in which part of the brain?
A) Cerebellum
B) Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
C) Medulla
D) Hypothalamus
Answer: B) Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
Analytical Explanation: The study analysed more than 6.3 million brain-cell nuclei, helping researchers understand gene activity across the human lifespan. (GKToday)
Q. 674. A new species of Begonia was recently described from which Indian state?
A) Assam
B) Arunachal Pradesh
C) Meghalaya
D) Sikkim
Answer: B) Arunachal Pradesh
Analytical Explanation: Begonia neelamorum was described from Keyi Panyor district. Its name reflects the Neelam clan of the Nyishi community. (Topper IAS)
Q. 675. INS SUDARSHINI arrived at which Egyptian city during Lokayan 26?
A) Cairo
B) Alexandria
C) Port Said
D) Suez
Answer: B) Alexandria
Analytical Explanation: INS Sudarshini arrived at Alexandria, Egypt, during the Lokayan 26 deployment. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 676. What does “mK” stand for in the 20 mK project?
A) Mega Kelvin
B) MilliKelvin
C) Micro Kelvin
D) Mini Kelvin
Answer: B) MilliKelvin
Analytical Explanation: One millikelvin is one-thousandth of a kelvin. 20 mK = 0.020 K, representing an extremely low temperature.
Q. 677. World Lung Day 2026 was observed on:
A) 21 September
B) 23 September
C) 25 September
D) 27 September
Answer: C) 25 September
Analytical Explanation: World Lung Day was observed on 25 September 2026, with attention to lifelong lung health. (Adda247)
Q. 678. AFSPA was recently extended for another six months in which of the following states?
A) Assam, Tripura and Mizoram
B) Manipur, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh
C) Meghalaya, Sikkim and Tripura
D) Nagaland, Assam and Meghalaya
Answer: B) Manipur, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh
Analytical Explanation: The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act was extended for another six months in specified areas of Manipur, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh, effective from 1 October 2026. (The Daily Jagran)
Q. 679. Special Campaign 6 will enter its implementation phase from which date?
A) 1 October 2026
B) 2 October 2026
C) 15 October 2026
D) 31 October 2026
Answer: B) 2 October 2026
Analytical Explanation: The preparatory phase runs from 16–30 September 2026, while the implementation phase of Special Campaign 6 is scheduled from 2–31 October 2026. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 680. Smartphone screen protectors have been added as which entry under India’s compulsory registration framework?
A) 54th
B) 60th
C) 66th
D) 72nd
Answer: C) 66th
Analytical Explanation: Smartphone screen protectors were added as the 66th product category under the relevant compulsory-registration framework. The applicable requirements take effect from 1 April 2027. (Hindustan Times)
Q. 681. The BIS standard for smartphone screen protectors is identified as:
A) IS 19348:2025
B) IS 19001:2024
C) IS 20250:2026
D) IS 18090:2025
Answer: A) IS 19348:2025
Analytical Explanation: The notified standard is IS 19348:2025, covering requirements such as dimensions, strength and surface-related characteristics. (Hindustan Times)
Q. 682. The new compulsory registration requirement for smartphone screen protectors becomes applicable from:
A) 1 January 2027
B) 1 March 2027
C) 1 April 2027
D) 1 July 2027
Answer: C) 1 April 2027
Analytical Explanation: Products covered by the notified requirements will need to comply from 1 April 2027. (Hindustan Times)
Q. 683. Who won silver in the women’s 50m Rifle 3 Positions team event for India?
A) Tilottama, Ashi and Vidarsa
B) Manu Bhaker, Esha Singh and Sift Kaur Samra
C) Elavenil Valarivan, Sonam Maskar and Vidarsa
D) Sift Kaur Samra, Ashi and Manu Bhaker
Answer: A) Tilottama, Ashi and Vidarsa
Analytical Explanation: The Indian trio of Tilottama, Ashi and Vidarsa secured silver in the women’s 50m Rifle 3 Positions team final. (India Today)
Q. 684. What is the proposed power-generation capacity of the Kishau Multipurpose Project?
A) 750 million units
B) 1,000 million units
C) 1,476 million units
D) 2,500 million units
Answer: C) 1,476 million units
Analytical Explanation: The project envisages a 232.6-metre-high concrete gravity dam and is expected to generate about 1,476 million units of clean hydropower. (The Indian Express)
Q. 685. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the official language of the Union?
A) Article 32
B) Article 44
C) Article 343
D) Article 370
Answer: C) Article 343
Analytical Explanation: Article 343 provides that the official language of the Union is Hindi in Devanagari script, while the constitutional framework also provided for continued use of English. (The Indian Express)
Q. 686. The Geneva Conventions of 1949 consist of how many separate conventions?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Answer: C) Four
Analytical Explanation: The 1949 Geneva Conventions comprise four separate conventions dealing with different categories of protection during armed conflict. (The Indian Express)
Q. 687. Which city topped India’s Electric Mobility Index 2025?
A) Mumbai
B) Bengaluru
C) Delhi
D) Hyderabad
Answer: C) Delhi
Analytical Explanation: Delhi recorded the highest composite score of 84 in the India Electric Mobility Index 2025, followed by Maharashtra and Karnataka. (The Indian Express)
Q. 688. Which state recorded the highest score in Charging Infrastructure Readiness?
A) Delhi
B) Karnataka
C) Maharashtra
D) Goa
Answer: B) Karnataka
Analytical Explanation: Karnataka recorded the highest nationwide score in the Charging Infrastructure Readiness category, with a score of 97. (The Indian Express)
Q. 689. Which Indian mission’s data helped researchers identify the Australe Basin on the Moon?
A) Mangalyaan
B) Chandrayaan-1
C) Chandrayaan-2
D) Aditya-L1
Answer: B) Chandrayaan-1
Analytical Explanation: Researchers used mineralogical data from Chandrayaan-1 to identify the Australe Basin, an ancient impact basin on the lunar surface. (The Indian Express)
Q. 690. The Australe Basin is located on:
A) Mars
B) Earth
C) Moon
D) Venus
Answer: C) Moon
Analytical Explanation: Scientists identified the Australe Basin as an ancient lunar impact basin that had remained difficult to detect because erosion had altered its visible boundaries. (The Indian Express)
Q. 691. India’s first LNG-powered train was flagged off from which railway station?
A) Vadodara
B) Sabarmati
C) Surat
D) Ahmedabad Central
Answer: B) Sabarmati
Explanation: India’s first LNG-powered train was flagged off from Sabarmati Railway Station in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, on September 27, 2026. (Press Information Bureau)
Q. 692. India’s first LNG-powered train initially operates between:
A) Mumbai and Pune
B) Sabarmati and Mahesana Junction
C) Ahmedabad and Surat
D) Vadodara and Rajkot
Answer: B) Sabarmati and Mahesana Junction
Explanation: The inaugural LNG-diesel dual-fuel DEMU service operates between Sabarmati and Mahesana Junction in Gujarat. (The Indian Express)
Q. 693. Which organization developed India’s LNG-diesel dual-fuel train?
A) BHEL
B) RDSO
C) Integral Coach Factory
D) HAL
Answer: C) Integral Coach Factory
Explanation: The train was developed by the Chennai-based Integral Coach Factory (ICF). (The Indian Express)
Q. 694. India recently dispatched about three tonnes of anti-tuberculosis medicines to:
A) Nepal
B) Bangladesh
C) Sri Lanka
D) Maldives
Answer: C) Sri Lanka
Explanation: India sent around three tonnes of anti-TB medicines to Colombo aboard an Indian Air Force C-130J aircraft as part of its support for Sri Lanka’s public health system. (NDTV)
Q. 695. The anti-TB medicines sent by India to Sri Lanka were transported by which aircraft?
A) C-17 Globemaster
B) C-130J
C) AN-32
D) Dornier 228
Answer: B) C-130J
Explanation: External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar stated that the medicines were dispatched aboard an IAF C-130J aircraft. (NDTV)
Q. 696. CITES entered into force in which year?
A) 1970
B) 1973
C) 1975
D) 1980
Answer: C) 1975
Explanation: CITES was drafted in 1973 and entered into force on July 1, 1975. (The Indian Express)
Q. 697. Vithya Ramraj won bronze in which event?
A) Women’s 200m
B) Women’s 400m hurdles
C) Women’s 800m
D) Women’s 400m
Answer: B) Women’s 400m hurdles
Explanation: Vithya Ramraj won bronze in the women’s 400m hurdles and broke a national record that had stood for 42 years. (India Today)
Q. 698. Whose 42-year-old national record did Vithya Ramraj break?
A) PT Usha
B) Anju Bobby George
C) Hima Das
D) Shiny Wilson
Answer: A) PT Usha
Explanation: Ramraj’s performance surpassed a 42-year-old national record associated with PT Usha. (Outlook India)
Q. 699. Parul Chaudhary won bronze in which event?
A) Women’s 1500m
B) Women’s 3000m steeplechase
C) Women’s 5000m
D) Women’s 10,000m
Answer: C) Women’s 5000m
Explanation: Parul Chaudhary won bronze in the women’s 5000m, recording a time of 15:14.61. (Rediff)
Q. 700. From which month and year will Indian Standard Time become mandatory for official and commercial purposes under the new rules?
A. January 2027
B. March 2027
C. July 2027
D. January 2028
Answer: B. March 2027
Analytical Explanation: The Legal Metrology (Indian Standard Time) Rules, 2026 provide for IST to become the single mandatory time reference for official, legal and commercial activities from March 2027.
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