50 Important Current Affairs MCQs with Answers & Explanations – 29 October 2026
50 Important Current Affairs MCQs with Answers & Explanations – 29 October 2026
Welcome to today’s current affairs practice set for 29 October 2026. These 50 multiple-choice questions cover Indian government schemes, economy, science and technology, defence, international relations, environment, sports and important national developments.
Useful for UPSC, SSC, Railway, Banking, State PSC, teaching examinations and other competitive exams.
Table of Contents
Section 1: National Current Affairs
Q1. Which organisation is responsible for regulating the prices of scheduled medicines in India?
A) RBI
B) NPPA
C) SEBI
D) NABARD
Correct Answer: B) NPPA
Explanation: The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) regulates and monitors medicine prices under the applicable drug-pricing framework. It works under the Department of Pharmaceuticals.
Q2. Which constitutional amendment gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions in India?
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 73rd Amendment
D) 86th Amendment
Correct Answer: C) 73rd Amendment
Explanation: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, established the constitutional framework for Panchayati Raj institutions. It added Part IX to the Constitution.
Q3. The Pradhan Mantri Viksit Gram Swaraj Yojana approved in October 2026 primarily concerns which area?
A) Urban metro development
B) Rural governance and Panchayats
C) International trade
D) Space exploration
Correct Answer: B) Rural governance and Panchayats
Explanation: The scheme focuses on strengthening village-level governance and developing the capacity of elected Panchayat representatives. The Union Cabinet approved it for the 2026–27 to 2030–31 period.
Q4. Which ministry administers the PM-DAKSH scheme?
A) Ministry of Education
B) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
C) Ministry of Agriculture
D) Ministry of Tourism
Correct Answer: B) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Explanation: PM-DAKSH promotes skill development among eligible disadvantaged groups through training programmes intended to improve employability and livelihood opportunities.
Q5. The National Startup Awards are associated with which department?
A) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
B) Department of School Education
C) Department of Atomic Energy
D) Department of Posts
Correct Answer: A) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
Explanation: DPIIT, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, supports the startup ecosystem and organises initiatives recognising innovative startups.
Q6. The National Social Assistance Programme primarily provides support to which group?
A) Foreign tourists
B) Eligible vulnerable households and individuals
C) Large private corporations
D) International athletes
Correct Answer: B) Eligible vulnerable households and individuals
Explanation: The National Social Assistance Programme includes social pension and assistance components for eligible elderly people, widows, persons with disabilities and bereaved households, subject to scheme rules.
Q7. Which institution is India’s central bank?
A) SEBI
B) NABARD
C) Reserve Bank of India
D) SIDBI
Correct Answer: C) Reserve Bank of India
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) manages monetary policy, issues banknotes subject to statutory provisions, regulates significant parts of the banking system and supports financial stability.
Q8. Which body approves capital acquisition proposals for India’s armed forces?
A) Election Commission of India
B) Defence Acquisition Council
C) Finance Commission
D) University Grants Commission
Correct Answer: B) Defence Acquisition Council
Explanation: The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC), chaired by the Defence Minister, considers major defence acquisition proposals and grants approvals at specified stages of the procurement process.
Q9. Infantry Day in India commemorates the landing of Indian troops in Srinagar in which year?
A) 1942
B) 1947
C) 1950
D) 1965
Correct Answer: B) 1947
Explanation: Infantry Day is observed on 27 October to commemorate the arrival of Indian Army troops in Srinagar on 27 October 1947 during the conflict in Jammu and Kashmir.
Q10. Which law provides the principal statutory framework for food safety in India?
A) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
B) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
C) Competition Act, 2002
D) Information Technology Act, 2000
Correct Answer: A) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
Explanation: The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, established the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) and consolidated laws relating to food safety and standards.
Section 2: Economy and Banking
Q11. What does IIP stand for in India’s economic statistics?
A) Indian Investment Programme
B) Index of Industrial Production
C) International Inflation Policy
D) Industrial Investment Plan
Correct Answer: B) Index of Industrial Production
Explanation: The Index of Industrial Production measures changes in the volume of industrial output. India’s official IIP estimates are released by the National Statistics Office (NSO).
Q12. India’s IIP growth for September 2026 was reported at approximately what rate in the latest release?
A) 2.1%
B) 4.0%
C) 6.7%
D) 10.5%
Correct Answer: C) 6.7%
Explanation: The official quick estimates reported IIP growth of 6.7% for September 2026, according to the latest release listed by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Q13. Which organisation regulates India’s securities market?
A) SEBI
B) FSSAI
C) TRAI
D) IRDAI
Correct Answer: A) SEBI
Explanation: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) regulates the securities market and works to protect investors and promote orderly market development.
Q14. The proposed SEBI–Bank of England cooperation reported in October 2026 relates to which area?
A) School examinations
B) Clearing corporations
C) Agricultural irrigation
D) Space launches
Correct Answer: B) Clearing corporations
Explanation: The reported memorandum of understanding concerns information sharing and cooperation relating to SEBI-recognised clearing corporations. Clearing corporations help manage settlement and counterparty risks in financial markets.
Q15. What is the main purpose of a central bank’s monetary policy?
A) To conduct school examinations
B) To manage monetary conditions and support price stability
C) To issue driving licences
D) To supervise village elections
Correct Answer: B) To manage monetary conditions and support price stability
Explanation: Monetary policy uses instruments such as policy interest rates and liquidity operations to influence financial conditions, inflation and economic activity.
Q16. What is a Variable Rate Repo (VRR) auction used for by the RBI?
A) Providing short-term liquidity to banks
B) Selling agricultural land
C) Issuing passports
D) Funding school textbooks directly
Correct Answer: A) Providing short-term liquidity to banks
Explanation: A variable rate repo auction allows the RBI to inject short-term liquidity through repurchase transactions at auction-determined interest rates.
Q17. What does CBDC stand for?
A) Central Banking Deposit Certificate
B) Central Bank Digital Currency
C) Common Business Development Council
D) Cash-Based Digital Credit
Correct Answer: B) Central Bank Digital Currency
Explanation: A central bank digital currency is a digital form of a country’s sovereign currency issued by its central bank. India’s digital rupee is an example.
Q18. What is the main purpose of a Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme?
A) To reward production and encourage domestic manufacturing
B) To prohibit all exports
C) To replace all banks with digital wallets
D) To fund only overseas businesses
Correct Answer: A) To reward production and encourage domestic manufacturing
Explanation: PLI schemes provide incentives linked to specified production or incremental sales criteria in selected sectors, subject to the scheme’s conditions.
Q19. Which ministry is primarily responsible for India’s textile sector at the Union level?
A) Ministry of Textiles
B) Ministry of External Affairs
C) Ministry of Coal
D) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
Correct Answer: A) Ministry of Textiles
Explanation: The Ministry of Textiles develops policies and programmes for the textile and apparel industry, including manufacturing, exports and sectoral development.
Q20. What does FTA stand for in international trade?
A) Financial Transfer Agency
B) Free Trade Agreement
C) Foreign Tax Assessment
D) Federal Transport Authority
Correct Answer: B) Free Trade Agreement
Explanation: A Free Trade Agreement reduces or removes certain trade barriers between participating countries. The exact commitments depend on the agreement.
Section 3: Science and Technology
Q21. Which Indian organisation is responsible for the country’s major space missions, including satellite launches?
A) DRDO
B) ISRO
C) FSSAI
D) SEBI
Correct Answer: B) ISRO
Explanation: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) develops and operates satellites, launch vehicles and space missions for scientific, navigational and practical applications.
Q22. Which satellite navigation system is developed by India?
A) Galileo
B) GLONASS
C) NavIC
D) BeiDou
Correct Answer: C) NavIC
Explanation: NavIC, short for Navigation with Indian Constellation, is India’s regional satellite navigation system. It provides positioning, navigation and timing services for its designated service area.
Q23. Which navigation satellite was scheduled for launch by ISRO on 30 October 2026, according to current-affairs reporting?
A) NVS-03
B) Chandrayaan-1
C) Aryabhata
D) Mangalyaan-2
Correct Answer: A) NVS-03
Explanation: Current-affairs reporting dated 29 October indicated that ISRO planned to launch NVS-03 to strengthen the NavIC satellite constellation. This is a scheduled event, not a claim that the launch has already succeeded.
Q24. What is the primary purpose of a prototype fast breeder reactor?
A) To generate electricity using nuclear technology while breeding additional fissile material
B) To produce drinking water from seawater only
C) To manufacture solar panels
D) To launch communication satellites
Correct Answer: A) To generate electricity using nuclear technology while breeding additional fissile material
Explanation: Fast breeder reactors are designed to generate power while producing more fissile material than they consume under suitable reactor and fuel-cycle conditions.
Q25. The Emerging Science, Technology and Innovation Conclave (ESTIC) is associated with which broad field?
A) Scientific research and innovation
B) Traditional postal services only
C) International cricket administration
D) Wildlife tourism alone
Correct Answer: A) Scientific research and innovation
Explanation: ESTIC brings together stakeholders in science, technology and innovation to discuss research, technological development and ways to translate scientific work into practical outcomes. The 2026 conclave was inaugurated in New Delhi.
Q26. What does AI stand for?
A) Automated Internet
B) Artificial Intelligence
C) Advanced Industry
D) Applied Information
Correct Answer: B) Artificial Intelligence
Explanation: Artificial intelligence refers to computer systems designed to perform tasks associated with human intelligence, such as language processing, pattern recognition and decision support.
Q27. Which organisation opened a Centre of Excellence at IIT (BHU), Varanasi, in October 2026, according to current-affairs reports?
A) C-DOT
B) SEBI
C) NABARD
D) FSSAI
Correct Answer: A) C-DOT
Explanation: The Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT) is associated with telecommunications research and development. The reported centre aims to strengthen collaboration in technology development.
Q28. Which disease is associated with abnormal haemoglobin and can be screened using blood-smear analysis?
A) Sickle cell disease
B) Rabies
C) Dengue alone
D) Tuberculosis alone
Correct Answer: A) Sickle cell disease
Explanation: Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder involving abnormal haemoglobin. Blood tests and specialised diagnostic methods are used to identify it.
Q29. Which organisation is primarily responsible for India’s defence research and development?
A) DRDO
B) RBI
C) UGC
D) NITI Aayog
Correct Answer: A) DRDO
Explanation: The Defence Research and Development Organisation develops technologies and systems for India’s armed forces, including defence electronics, weapons and other military equipment.
Q30. What is the principal purpose of a satellite-based navigation system?
A) To provide positioning and timing information
B) To regulate medicine prices
C) To conduct parliamentary elections
D) To issue income-tax refunds
Correct Answer: A) To provide positioning and timing information
Explanation: Satellite navigation systems allow compatible receivers to determine location, speed and precise timing using signals from navigation satellites.
Section 4: International Affairs and Organisations
Q31. India and Mexico formally began negotiations in October 2026 for which type of trade arrangement?
A) Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA)
B) Military alliance
C) Currency union
D) Common passport system
Correct Answer: A) Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA)
Explanation: Current-affairs reporting indicated that India and Mexico launched negotiations for a Preferential Trade Agreement after signing the Terms of Reference. A PTA provides preferential treatment to specified products rather than necessarily eliminating tariffs across all trade.
Q32. Which organisation has ten member states and is associated with regional cooperation in Southeast Asia?
A) ASEAN
B) NATO
C) OPEC
D) SAARC
Correct Answer: A) ASEAN
Explanation: The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) promotes regional cooperation among Southeast Asian countries in economic, political and security matters.
Q33. Where was the 13th ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus (ADMM-Plus) reported to be held in October 2026?
A) Cebu, Philippines
B) New Delhi, India
C) Tokyo, Japan
D) Paris, France
Correct Answer: A) Cebu, Philippines
Explanation: Reports dated 28 October 2026 placed the 13th ADMM-Plus meeting in Cebu, where participating countries discussed defence cooperation and regional security.
Q34. Which country is a permanent member of the United Nations Security Council?
A) India
B) Japan
C) France
D) Brazil
Correct Answer: C) France
Explanation: The five permanent members of the UN Security Council are China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the United States. India is not currently a permanent member.
Q35. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is primarily a regional organisation focused on cooperation in which broad areas?
A) Security, economic and political cooperation
B) Only international football
C) Only ocean exploration
D) Only global postal services
Correct Answer: A) Security, economic and political cooperation
Explanation: The SCO promotes cooperation among its member states in regional security, counterterrorism, economic relations and other areas.
Q36. What is the principal objective of the BRICS grouping?
A) Cooperation among emerging and developing economies
B) Establishment of a single global language
C) Administration of the Olympic Games
D) Regulation of all international airlines
Correct Answer: A) Cooperation among emerging and developing economies
Explanation: BRICS provides a platform for participating countries to cooperate on economic development, international governance, finance and other shared priorities.
Q37. Which organisation publishes the Human Development Report?
A) UNDP
B) WTO
C) IMF
D) ILO
Correct Answer: A) UNDP
Explanation: The United Nations Development Programme publishes the Human Development Report, which examines development using measures that include health, education and income.
Q38. Which international organisation is responsible for coordinating global public-health work within the United Nations system?
A) WHO
B) WTO
C) WIPO
D) ICAO
Correct Answer: A) WHO
Explanation: The World Health Organization coordinates international public-health efforts, develops health guidance and supports countries in responding to health emergencies.
Q39. The G20 primarily brings together major economies to discuss which issues?
A) Global economic cooperation and related international challenges
B) Only national school curricula
C) Only regional cricket tournaments
D) Only space tourism
Correct Answer: A) Global economic cooperation and related international challenges
Explanation: The G20 is a forum for international economic cooperation. Its agenda also includes issues such as development, climate, energy and financial stability.
Q40. Which country is the home of the International Court of Justice (ICJ)?
A) Netherlands
B) India
C) Canada
D) Australia
Correct Answer: A) Netherlands
Explanation: The International Court of Justice is based at the Peace Palace in The Hague, Netherlands. It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations.
Section 5: Environment, Defence, Sports and Important Days
Q41. What is India’s declared target year for achieving net-zero greenhouse-gas emissions?
A) 2030
B) 2047
C) 2070
D) 2100
Correct Answer: C) 2070
Explanation: India has announced a target of achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. Net zero means balancing greenhouse-gas emissions with removals over time.
Q42. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?
A) Coal
B) Petroleum
C) Solar energy
D) Natural gas
Correct Answer: C) Solar energy
Explanation: Solar energy comes from sunlight and is renewable. Coal, petroleum and natural gas are fossil fuels formed over geological timescales.
Q43. What does BOD stand for in water-quality assessment?
A) Biological Oxygen Distribution
B) Biochemical Oxygen Demand
C) Basic Ozone Density
D) Biological Organic Deposit
Correct Answer: B) Biochemical Oxygen Demand
Explanation: Biochemical Oxygen Demand measures the oxygen microorganisms require to break down biodegradable organic matter in water. Higher BOD can indicate greater organic pollution.
Q44. Which Indian ministry is responsible for major national policies concerning forests, wildlife and environmental protection?
A) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
B) Ministry of Civil Aviation
C) Ministry of Textiles
D) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
Correct Answer: A) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Explanation: This ministry develops and administers major Union-level environmental policies and programmes relating to forests, wildlife, pollution and climate change.
Q45. World Polio Day is observed every year on which date?
A) 5 June
B) 21 October
C) 24 October
D) 10 December
Correct Answer: C) 24 October
Explanation: World Polio Day raises awareness of polio eradication efforts and the importance of vaccination to prevent the disease.
Q46. United Nations Day is observed on which date?
A) 24 October
B) 26 January
C) 15 August
D) 1 May
Correct Answer: A) 24 October
Explanation: United Nations Day commemorates the entry into force of the UN Charter on 24 October 1945, marking the formal beginning of the United Nations.
Q47. Which body is responsible for administering the Olympic Games at the international level?
A) International Olympic Committee (IOC)
B) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
C) International Labour Organization (ILO)
D) World Trade Organization (WTO)
Correct Answer: A) International Olympic Committee (IOC)
Explanation: The IOC leads the Olympic Movement and oversees the organisation of the Olympic Games in cooperation with host cities, national Olympic committees and international sports federations.
Q48. Which Indian tennis player won the Almaty Open doubles title alongside Ryan Seggerman in October 2026, according to current-affairs reporting?
A) Yuki Bhambri
B) Leander Paes
C) Rohan Bopanna
D) Sumit Nagal
Correct Answer: A) Yuki Bhambri
Explanation: Current-affairs reporting for 29 October identified Yuki Bhambri and Ryan Seggerman as the Almaty Open doubles champions.
Q49. Which Indian organisation manufactures the Vande Bharat trainsets in its railway production facilities?
A) Rail Coach Factory, Kapurthala
B) Indian Space Research Organisation
C) National Highways Authority of India
D) Airports Authority of India
Correct Answer: A) Rail Coach Factory, Kapurthala
Explanation: Rail Coach Factory (RCF), Kapurthala, is one of Indian Railways’ major coach manufacturing facilities. Current-affairs reporting has highlighted Vande Bharat chair-car trainsets associated with RCF.
Q50. Which ministry launched the Khelo India Sports Goods Manufacturing Scheme approved in October 2026?
A) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
B) Ministry of External Affairs
C) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
D) Ministry of Rural Development
Correct Answer: A) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
Explanation: The Union Cabinet approved the Khelo India Sports Goods Manufacturing Scheme to help build a globally competitive sports-goods manufacturing ecosystem. The scheme was listed among the Cabinet’s announcements of 28 October 2026.
Quick Revision: Important Facts
| Topic | Key fact |
| Panchayati Raj | 73rd Constitutional Amendment |
| Medicine pricing | NPPA |
| Industrial output | IIP |
| Securities market | SEBI |
| Indian navigation system | NavIC |
| Indian space agency | ISRO |
| India’s net-zero target | 2070 |
| World Polio Day | 24 October |
| United Nations Day | 24 October |
| Almaty Open doubles | Yuki Bhambri and Ryan Seggerman |
